TARGET FMGE 2009 / MCI SCREENING TEST MARCH 2009

Mnemonics -Easy way to remember difficult things
Hai guys
here i am giving you some Mnemonics they are sub wise use them they really help
if you find them useful let me know pls


Anatomy Mnemonics
Bones of the Wrist
Some Lovers Try Positions That They Cannot Handle Branches of the Brachial Plexus (In order from most lateral to most medial)
My Aunt Raped My Uncle

Musculocutaneous, Axillary, Radial, Median, Ulnar

Slowly Lower Tilly's Pants To The Curly Hairs

Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate

Brachial Plexus
Randy Travis Drinks Cold Beers Robert Taylor Drinks Cold Beer

Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords, Branches

Branches of the Brachial Plexus (In order from most lateral to most medial)
My Aunt Raped My Uncle

Musculocutaneous, Axillary, Radial, Median, Ulnar

Extraocularmotor muscles
LR6 (SO4) LR6: Lateral rectus --> VI abductens
SO4: Superior Oblique --> IV Trochlear
All other extraocularmotor muscles are CN III

Branches of the Facial Nerve
Ten Zebras Bought My Car

Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Masseteric, Cervical

Innervation of phrenic nerve
c345 keeps the phrenic alive
c345 keep the diaphragm alive


Long thoracic nerve innervates serratus anterior
c5-6-7 raise your arms to heaven


Relationship of Thorasic duct to Esophagous and Azygous
The duck is between two gooses.
duck = thoracic duct 2 gooses = azyGOUS and esophaGOUS


Attachments of Pectoralis Major, Teres Major and Latissimus Drosi
A lady between tow majors.
Pectoralis major attaches to lateral lip of bicipital groove, the teres major attaches to medial lip of bicipital groove, and the latissimus dorsi attaches to the floor of bicipital groove. The "lati" is between two "majors."


Innervation of the Penis
Parasympathetic puts it up; sympathetic spurts it out.
Point Shoot Score
Parasympathetic, sympathetic, somatomotor


Lateral and Medial Pectoral Nerve
Lateral is less, medial is more.
Lateral pectoral nerves goes through pectoralis major while medial pn goes though both pectoral major and minor.

Dentition: eruption times of permanent dentition
"Mama Is In Pain, Papa Can Make Medicine":
1st Molar: 6 years
1st Incisor: 7 years
2nd Incisor: 8 years
1st Premolar: 9 years
2nd Premolar: 10 years
Canine: 11 years
2nd Molar: 12 years
3rd Molar: 18-25 years


Layers of the epidermis
Grand son grate living Child.
Brent Spiner Gained Lieutenant Commander
Germinativum or Basale, Spinosum, Granulosum, Lucidum, Corneum



Tarsal bones
"Tall Californian Navy Medcial Interns Lay Cuties":
• In order (right foot, superior to inferior, medial to lateral): Talus Calcanous Navicular Medial cuneiform Intermediate cuneiform Lateral cuneifrom Cuboid

Bronchopulmonary segments of right lung
"A PALM Seed Makes Another Little Palm":
• In order from superior to inferior: Apical Posterior Anterior Lateral Medial Superior Medial basal Anterior basal Lateral basal Posterior basal

Head & Neck
CRANIAL NERVES: I-Optic, II-Olfactory, III-Oculomotor, IV-Trochlear, V-Trigeminal, VI-Abducens, VII-Facial, VIII-Acoustic (Vestibulocochlear), IX-Glossophrayngeal, X-Vagus, XI-Spinal Accessory, XII-Hypoglossal
On Old Olympus Towering Tops, A Finn And German Viewed Some Hops (older and cleaner)
Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel A Girls Vagina And Hymen (newer and, well ...)

Which cranial nerve is Sensory, Motor, or Both- Some Say Marry Money, But My Brother Says Big Breasts Matter More

BRANCHES OF FACIAL NERVE: Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Mandibular, Cervical
Ten Zebras Beat My Cock
Two Zulus buggered my cat –(for the sicker, amongst you!)

You have I nose. You have II eyes. (I - Olfactory; II -- Optic)

Exit of branches of trigeminal nerve from the skull S
Standing Room Only -
V1 -Superior orbital fissure, V2 -foramen Rotundum, V3 -foramen Ovale



For the order of nerves that pass through the superior orbital fissure:
"Lazy French Tarts Lie Naked in Anticipation."
(Lacrimal, Frontal, Trochlear, Lateral, Nosociliary, Internal,
Abducens)

2 Muscle of mastication- Lateral Lowers- lateral pterygoid is the one that opens the jaw
4 Muscles of Mastication MTPP( which could be read as "Empty Peepee") -masseter, temporal, lateral and medial pterygoids --


Arteries as they come off the external carotid:
Some Angry Lady Figured out PMS
Superior thyroid, Ascending pharyngeal, Lingual, Facial, Occipital, Post Auricular, Superficial temporal, Maxillary

Innervation of Extraocular motor Muscles: LR6 SO4 3
LR6--Lateral rectus--> VI abductens
SO4--Superior Oblique--> IV Trochlear
3--The remaining 4 eyeball movers = III Oculomotor

ABC'S of the aortic arch!
Aortic arch gives off the Bracheiocephalic trunk,
the left Common Carotid, and the left
Subclavian artery

BRACHIAL PLEXUS: Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords, Branches
Robert Taylor Drinks Cold Beer.

CERVICAL SPINAL NERVES:
c345 keeps the phrenic alive (innervation of phrenic nerve) c345 keep the diaphragm alive (innervation of diaphragm)
c5-6-7 raise your arms to heaven (nerve roots of long thoracic nerve innervate serratus anterior)


Cranial Bones
Annoying, aren't they?
The cranial bones are the PEST OF 6...

Parietal, Ethmoid,Sphenoid,Temporal,Occipital,Frontal- 6 ? (6-the number of bones!)
( another one) Old People From Texas Eat Spiders.


LOCATION OF THORACIC DUCT: The duck is between two gooses (duck = thoracic duct) 2 gooses = azyGOUS and esophaGOUS


Cartilages of the Larynx - There are 4 cartilages in the larynx whose initial letters are TEAC (also the brandname of a home stereo).
Thyroid, Epiglottis, Arytenoid, Cricoid


Abdomen-Pelvis

INNERVATION OF PENIS:
Parasympathetic puts it up; sympathetic spurts it out
Point , Shoot, Score! (erection, emmision ,ejaculation) Parasympathetic, Sympathetic , Somatomotor
"S2, 3, 4 keep the penis off the floor" Innervation of the penis by branches of the pudental nerve, derived from spinal cord levels S2-4

Structures perforating the esophagus
"At T8 you see, perforates the IVC" (inferior Vena Cava)
the "EsoVagus" pierce T10 (esophagus, vagus nerve)
T12 - red, white and blue (aorta,thoracic duct,azygous vein)

Femoral Sheath (lateral to medial) order of things in thigh -NAVEL
Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty, Space, Lymphatics

Radial n. innervates the BEST!!!!
Brachioradialis
Extensors
Supinator
Triceps

Course of Ureters
Water runs under the bridge (uterine a. and ductus deferens)

Carotid Sheath-- VAN
Internal Jugular Vein
Common carotid Artery
Vagus Nerve

Dermatomes
C3 is a high turtleneck shirt
T4 is at the nipple
L1 is at the inguinal ligament (or L1 is IL -Inguinal ligament)
Randy Travis Drinks Cold Beer--Brachial plexus
Robert Taylor Drinks Cold Beer
Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords, Branches

Bones of the wrist -Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Trapezium,
Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate

1. Slowly Lower Tilly's Pants To The Curly Hairs
2. Swifty Lower Tilly's Pants to try coitus here. (the risque version)
3.Scared Lovers Try Positions That They Can't Handle. (Classic version)


Pelvic Diaphragm
PICOLO(A) -Posterior to anterior
PIriformis
COccygeus
Levator Ani


Pelvic Splanchic-Parasympathetic
Sacral Splanchic-Sympathetic


Armies travel over bridges, the Navy travels under.
(Bridge is the ligament...reference to suprascapular artery and nerve.)


Pad, dab. Dorsal ABduct...Palmar ADduct...interosseous muscles of hand/foot.


Layers of the epidermis-Germinativum or Basale, Spinosum, Granulosum, Lucidum, Corneum

Grandpa Shagging Grandma's Love Child.

Limbic System- the 5 F’s- Feeding, Fighting, Feeling, Flight and making babiesing



The 5 sphincters found in the Alimentary Canal are APE OIL:
Anal, Pyloric, Lower Esophogeal, Oddi, and Ileocecum.


The branches of the Axillary Artery are: Sally Thompson Loves Sex And Pot pie.
Superior Thoracic, Thoracoacromial, Lateral Thoracic, Subscapular, Anterior Circumflex Humeral, Posterior Circumflex Humeral, and Profunda Brachii.



TIRE- four abdominal muscles -- transversus, internal oblique, rectus abdominus, and external oblique

Anesthesia Mnemonics



Spinal anesthesia agents
"Little Boys Prefer Toys":
Lidocaine
Bupivicaine
Procaine
Tetracaine



Xylocaine: where not to use with epinephrine
"Nose, Hose, Fingers and Toes"
• Vasoconstrictive effects of xylocaine with epinephrine are helpful in providing hemostasis while suturing. However, may cause local ischemic necrosis in distal structures such as the digits, tip of nose, penis, ears.



General anaesthesia: equipment check prior to inducing
MALES:
Masks
Airways
Laryngoscopes
Endotracheal tubes
Suction/ Stylette, bougie



Endotracheal intubation: diagnosis of poor bilateral breath sounds after intubation
DOPE:
Displaced (usually right mainstem, pyreform fossa, etc.)
Obstruction (kinked or bitten tube, mucuous plug, etc.)
Pneumothorax (collapsed lung)
Esophagus



Anesthesia machine/room check
MS MAID:
Monitors (EKG, SpO2, EtCO2, etc)
Suction
Machine check (according to ASA guidelines)
Airway equipment (ETT, laryngoscope, oral/nasal airway)
IV equipment
Drugs (emergency, inductions, NMBs, etc)



Anesthesia: quick check
SOAP:
Suction
Oxygen
Airway
Pharmacology


Anesthetics equipment check
MISMADE:
Machine check
IV supplies
Suction
Monitors
Airways
Drugs
Equipment



Failed intubation: causes
INTUBATION:
Infections of larynx
Neck mobility abnormalities
Teeth abnormalites (eg poor dentifom, loose and protuberant teeth)
Upper airway abnormalities, strictures, or swellings
Bullsneck deformities
Ankylosing spondylitis
Trauma/ TumourInexperienceOedema of upper airwayNarrowing of lower airway



Respiratory complications of anaesthesia: patients at risk
COUPLES:
COPD
Obese
Upper abdominal surgery
Prolonged bed rest
Long surgery
Elderly
Smokers
Biochemistry Mnemonics

Essential Amino Acids
PriVaTe TIM HALL
Phe, Val, Thr, Trp, Ile, Met, His, Arg, Leu, Lys


Urea Cycle
Ordinarily, Careless Crappers, Are Also Frivolous About Urination.
Ornithine, Carbamoyl, Citrulline, Arginosuccinate, Aspartate, Fumarate, Arginine, Urea.


Cell division
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
"People Meet And Talk."


In the Phasted State
Phosphorylate Phosphorylation cascade active when blood glucose low.
DNA expression into mature mRNA
Exons expressed, Introns in the trash.
Pyrimidines are CUT from purines.
Pyrimidines are Cytosine, Uracil, Thiamine and are one ring structures.
Purines are double ring structures.

Amino Acids:The ten essential amino acids:
"These Ten Valuable Amino Acids Have Long Preserved Life In
Man."
(Threonine, Tryptophan, Valine, Arginine, Histidine, Lysine,
Phenylalanine, Leucine, Isoleucine, Methionine)



GOAT FLAP- Eight hormones: Growth hormone, Oxytocin, Adenocorticotropin, Thyroid stimulating hormone, Follicle stimulating hormone, Leutinizing hormone (interstitial cell stimulating hormone in males), Anti-diruetic(Vasopressin), and Prolactin
(shhhh.... also Melatonin!)

fmge sep 2008

Posted: Sat Oct 04, 2008 2:46 pm Post subject: Questions FMGE -2008(Part-1,11; Set-A)

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Questions FMGE -2008(Part-1,11; Set-A)


1) Trendelenberg test is positive due to…..?
2) Notochord exists as….?
3) Neuroglia….?
4) Hyaline Arteriosclerosis seen in …..?
5) Which Ig crosses through placenta …..?
6) M.C cardiac lesion seen in pregnancy ……?
7) M.C valve disease due to M.I ? (Sorry, I forgot the question. It was asked in similarly)
Herd Immunity?
9) Koplik’s spots seen in ……?
10) A ? patient with hypertension & suffering from Thyroiditis, DOC ……?
11) Hypocalcemia is seen with the following?
12) Most common position of Uterus?
13) Shortest ø of pelvis is……?
14) Right base of the heart is formed by …..?
15) Right side Mid calvicle the lung ends at which rib?
16) Water supply in hilly areas?
17) Prophylaxis DOC for Meningitis?
1 Anaemia is seen with all except?
19) Dose of Folic acid during pregnancy? (prophylaxis dose)
20) Vitamin “A” dosage is given in….? (?. of doses.)
21) What is Apoptosis?
22) Extrinsic factor in blood coagulation? (PT/PTT)
23) Curschmann’s spirals are due to?
24) Bell’s palsy?
25) In Dialysis which toxicity is seen commonly?
26) TOC for Gastric ulcer?
27) Squamous non-keratinizing is seen in….? a) Tongue b) Trachea c) Oesophagus d) Vagina
2 Tumour marker CA-125 is related to pancreatic Ca &…….?
29) Bilaterally kidneys are shrunken in …….?
30) Poisoning due to ______________preserved are hair, Etc..etc….?
31) The hormone helps in milk secretion?
32) Most abundant ICF is …….?
33) Features like-Hypogonadism, Loss of Hair, Pigmentation of skin Etc..etc Deficiency due to?
34) Most common features of alcohol withdrawl?
35) Negri bodies are characteristic of ?
36) M.C opportunistic Infection in immuno compromised patient?
37) Mallory-weiss syndrome? (Mallory bodies seen with….?)
3 Sickness benefit under ESI Act is given for the following illness?
39) Glucose is reabsorbed at?
40) M.C pemphigus seen in India?

41) India ia at which stage of Demographic?
42) Urinary incontinence in Older people is due to……?
43) Breast cancer is due to all, Except?
44) Black & white colour vision is due to ………?
45) Grey colour……? ( Extremely sorry I forgot what was asked ,{Ophthalmology Q} if any one can remember please ADD)
46) Kussmaul breathing is due to or seen in ………?
47) Cellulitis is caused by…….?
4 Auer rods are seen in ……?
49) Gynaecomastia is due to drugs……..?
50) In a new born Jaundice occurs on 3-5days;its not due to ……….?
51) Transmitted by faeco-orally, Except ?
52) ß-Thalassemia inherited as ……..?
53) Foreign body inhaled usually lodges in which lung?
54) Change in blood viscosity causes ………?
55) * Question regarding Dentition? “Eruption”
56) Food poisoning 4-6 hrs organism responsible ……..?
57) Dreaming is common in which type of sleep?
5 Second heart sound is due to ……..?
59) “SAFE” ; ‘S’-stands for ……..?
60) Long term status of blood sugar explained by …….? (Ans: HbA1c ; The way the question was formed is different, any way the matter is most Important.)
61) Hyperglycemic drugs reduces weight ………..?
62) Surfactant is formed from which type of cells?
63) Spleenectomy is helpful in ……..?
64) Incineration done for which of the following?
65) Anti-gliadin antibodies are seen in?
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) The following are example of Apootosis Except-
a) Graft versus host disease
b) Menstrual cycle
c) Pathological atrophy following duct obstruction
d) Tumour necrosis

2) The normal tensile strength of tissue at the site of wound is gained after:
a) 1 week of wound healing
b) 2 weeks of wound healing
c) 2 months of wound healing
d) 2 years of wound healing

Ths best test for BEST Disrase

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Best disease is characterized by a striking accumulation of lipofuscin-like material in the macula that often results in an "egg-yolk-like" appearance. In addition, patients affected with Best's disease display an abnormal electrophysiologic sign known as a depressed Arden ratio. The electro-oculogram (EOG) is a measurement of the electric potential that normally exists across the retinal pigment epithelium. This potential normally doubles in response to bright light. However, in Best's disease, this increase does not exist. This test can be used to diagnose patients without classic macular lesions, as well as identifying patients that are unlikely to have the disease.


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qs of sept 2008 paper

21 trisomy asso. with
ALL
CLL
AML
CML

2) esophagus length
40
25
15
30

3)pre malignant cond. of esophagus
barrets

4)length of external aud. canal cartilagenous part
8
16
24
12

5)max. Na absorption at
PCT
DCT
LOH
CT

6)SUNRAY apearance on x ray
osteoclastoma
osteoblastoma
osteosarcoma
chondroblastoma

7)m\c tumor in spine
sec.
ewings sarcoma
oteosarcoma
m. myeloma

punched out lesion in skull
ewings sarcoma
m.myeloma
sec.
oteosarcoma
9)m\c reason for bradycardia in MI
septal MI
right vent. MI
left ventricular MI

10) S1 split seen in
RBBB
?
?
?

11)snow flake cat. (from prev.papers)

12)after injury to one eye other aslo worsen
glucoma
cat.
sym. opthalmia
?

13)qs from placenta abroptia ...bleeding per vagina tender and hard

very few qs from Obs

14) 60 year old man with left hydroceal + ???

ans. nephroma

15)lateral epicondyal fac.
non union
tardy ulnar nerve palsy
?
all

16)m\c parasitic infection in AIDS
strongiloids

17)toxin responsibel for TSS in femals
exo toxin

! in stap. aures food poisoning diarrhea occur due 2
endotoxin
vagus
exotoxin
?

19)pheochromocytoma diagnosis
24 hours urine metabolites VMA+ CA
MIBG
CT scan
surgery

20) what we use for thyroid scan
I 131
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Q)DRUG WHICH CAUSES REVERSIBLE GYNECOMASTIA
-CIMETEDINE
-OMEPRAZOLE
Q)DOC FOR PROPHYLAXIS OF MENINGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS--RIFAMPIN
Q)A PT WITH THROMBOCYTOPENIA.1ST IOC
*-BLEEDING TIME
-PLATELET COUNT
-PROTHROMBIN TIME
Q)MC CAUSE OF SOLITARY THYROID NODULE
-FOLLICULAR ADENOMA
Q)TUMOR MARKER4BOTH PANCREATIC &COLON CA
-CA125
-CA19
Q)A PT VID AN INFERIOR WALL MI IN SHOCK.REASON?
ANS-RIGHT VENTRICULAR INFARCTION
Q)ALL R FEATURES OF ATRIAL MYXOMA EXCEPT
-FEVER
-CLUBBING
-EMBOLI
*HYPERTENSION
Q)DOC IN SVT--ADENOSINE
Q)A FEMALE PT HAS CHEST PAIN (NON EXERTIONAL)
AUSCULTATION--MULTIPLE NON EJECTION ? ..IOC?
*ECHO
Q)A PT PESENTS WITH MI.EARLEST MARKER?
CK-MB
TROP-T
MYOGLOBIN
Q)STAPH AUREUS FOOD POISONING-CAUSE OF NAUSEA?
ANS--DIRECT VAGAL STIMULATION
Q)A Q ON WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS
Q)A PT ON TPN.WHAT COULD BE THE CAUSE OF MORTALITY IN THAT PT?
OPTIONS CANT RECALL,BUT I MARKED INFECTIONS DUE2CENTRAL LINE
Q)A Q ON APGAR SCORE
Q)A Q ON ARDS--DIAGNOSTIC CRITERIA


some more recalls!

Q)A PT WITH BULBAR URETRAL RUPTURE.UR 1ST MN: WUD BE
--SUPRAPUBIC CYSTOSTOMY
--FOLEY'S
--CONSERVATIVE MN
--REFER2UROLOGIST

Q)MJ MUSCLE FOR EYE INTORSION?

Q)ERYTHRODERMA IS ASSOCIATED WID A/E
--LEPROMATOUS LEPROSY
--AIR BORNE DERMATITIS

Q)DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS IS A/W
*ULCERATIVE COLITIS

Q)MC TYPE OF PEMPHIGUS IN INDIA?
*P.VULGARIS

Q)LA SAFE IN RF?
GALLAMINE

Q)A PT WID MYASTHENIA GRAVIS IS RESISTANT2
--*DEPOLARISING MR
--NON DEPOLARISING MR
--BOTH
--NONE

Q)A PSM Q 2FIND OUT RELATIVE RISK

Q)ANOTHER PSM Q ON PANEL DISCUSSION..Q WAS AS2VAT WAS IT ABOUT

Q)A Q ON SARCOIDOSIS(PATHO)

Q)WHICH ANTIBODY HAS BEST4 CELIAC DISEASE(SENSITIVE &SPECIFIC)?
*ANTI ENDOMYSIAL AB


Q)BEST PROGNOSTIC FACTOR 4 A/C PANCREATITIS
-*S.LIPASE

Q)A Q ON ZES--WHICH IS NOT TRUE
ONE OF THE OPTION READ--REDUCED BAO:MAO WHICH S D ANS


Q)AN OHA WHICH IS USED 2TREAT OBESITY
ANS WAS SUM BIGUANIDE GIVEN IN THE OPTIONS

Q)ANOTHER Q ON DIAB DRUG
WHICH ONE DOES'NT CAUSE HYPOGLYCEMIA
(SORRY,CANT RECALL OPTIONS)



BUT FRIENDS,,NEXT TIME DO READ A BIT ABOUT ORAL HYPOGLYCEMICS AS WELL AS SOME IMP BITS ABOUT ANTI-OBESITY DRUGS
(SEEMS NAT BOARD HAS LOST IT'S LONG LASTED LOVE 4 MALARIA,TB,N OTHER PARASITIC INFECTIONS!NOT A SINGLE Q WAS ASKED!!))


Q)DRUG USED4TREMORS IN HYPERTHYROIDISM?
--PROPRANOLOL


Q)AN EASY Q--WHICH CAUSES HYPOCALCEMIA?
ANS WAS CALCITONIN

Q)A PT ON TPN FOR A WEEK DEVELOPS FEATURES((WHICH WAS SUGGESTIVE OF ZN DEFICIENCY))..DEFICIENCY OF VAT?


Q)A Q ON NEPHROTIC SYNDROME IN CHILDREN....


Q)HYALINE ARTERIOSCLEROSIS IS SEEN IN
*BENIGN HTN

some more questions frm FMGE sept 2008

1-ring shaped ulcers seen in?
2-neurotrophic keratitis-nerve involved
3-question on sympathetic ophthalmia
4-extra capsular cataract surgery-parts of lens which are excised?
5- SAFE strategy for trachoma-S stands for?
6-rubro iridis is not seen in?
7-questions on cost benefit and cost accounting in PSM
8-central tendancy seen in-(refer biostats PSM )
9-question on odds ratio
10-complication of measles virus -encephalomelyitis
some more-
NNN Media used for- Ans-leshmania donavani
Treatment of first degree testicular cancer
Fourniers (sorry for d spelling,I don remember exactly!) gangrene seen in- Ans scrotum
Treatment Regimen for hodkgins lymphoma
Shape of tracheal cartilage-ans-horse shoe shape
Comonest congenital anomaly of trachea
Erythoderma is not seen in-?
Commonest lupus in india-
Fate of notochord-?
Mysanthia gravis is not inhibited by-depolarizing agents,non depolarizing agents,both,?
Rarest form of opportunistic fungal infection seen in AIDS-
White line of frenkel seen in-ans Scurvy
Xray sign of rickets
Splenomegaly not seen in-?
The first clinical presentation of acoustic neuroma-ans-facial nerve involvement
Stones r seen most commonly in submandibular salivary gland
The calories required by one year old child
4-5 questions on Tracheostomy
Sunray sign on xray seen in-?osteosarcoma
Tardy ulnar palsy seen in-?
Rigor mortis is due to-?
Vitreous hemorrhage on autopsy seen in poisoning of-?
One question on [bleep]-Refer Forensic Medicin
Most specific method of diagnosis of kalazar


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questions

Q.a patient with tb had decrease SERUM level of Na and k....... and has hyperpigmentation of crease of hand??...
ans.. secondary hyperaldeosteroism.
Q.MC. CAUSE OF DEATH IN INDIA?
ANS. CORONAY HEART DISEASE.
Q.CXR AP VIEWON RIGHT SIDE OF CARDIAC SILHOUTE U CAN SEE ALL EXCEPT?
ANS. SUPERIOR VENA CAVA
Q.NORMAL TO INCREASE SIZE OF KIDNEY IS SEEN ALL EXCEPT?
ANS. *CHRONOC GN
DIABETIC NEPHROPATHY
AIDS REALTED NEPHROPATHY
PKD
Q.SPLEEN IS SUPPORT BY WHICH LIGAMNET FROM UPPER SIDE?
ANS. GASTROSPLENIC LIGAMENT.
Q.STAIN FOR AMLYDOSIS
ANS. CONGO RED
Q.AUER RODS ARE SEEN IN?
AN. AML
Q.WHICH TUMOR IS MC IN DOWN SYNDROME?\
ANS MAY BE RETINOBLASTOMA (PLZ MAKE SURE FROM BOOK)

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1.Trendelenburg's test

Also known as:
Brodie-Trendelenburg test
Trendelenburg-Brodie test

Associated persons:
Sir Benjamin Collins Brodie
Friedrich Trendelenburg

Description:

Test for varicose veins. Patient lies on his back and raises his leg to empty the veins. A tourniquet is applied just below the saphenous opening. The patient is then stood up and the tourniquet removed in 60 seconds. Normally the vein should fill from below within 35 seconds with the tourniquet in situ. Earlier filling indicates incompetence of a communicating vein. If on release the veins fill rapidly from above it is due to incompetent sapheno-femoral valves.


2. Trendelenburg's test


Trendelenburg's test is a test of the saphenous and other veins.[1]
It is named for Friedrich Trendelenburg.[2][3]
It should not be confused with Trendelenburg's sign, which involves the muscles of the hip.


Trendelenburg's sign:


Trendelenburg's sign is found in people with weak abductor muscles of the hip. It is named after the German surgeon Friedrich Trendelenburg.
The Trendelenburg sign is said to be positive if, when standing on one leg, the pelvis drops on the side opposite to the stance leg. The weakness is present on the side of the stance leg. The body is not able to maintain the center of gravity on the side of the stance leg. Normally, the body shifts the weight to the stance leg, allowing the shift of the center of gravity and consequently stabilizing or balancing the body. However, in this scenario, when the patient/person lifts the opposing leg, the shift is not created and the patient/person cannot maintain balance leading to instability.

Essentially, Trendelenburg sign is caused by paralysis of the gluteus medius and minimus muscles.

Paralysis may arise due to nerve damage, namely, the superior gluteal nerve
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1.
Trendelenburg test is a standard clinical assessment of hip stability.

A positive test indicates gluteus medius weaknessand is observed when weight is supported by the affected limband the pelvis on the healthy side falls instead of rises.

This test was used in this study to compare the two approaches. Incases of minimal abductor weakness there may be a delayedpositive test. It is for this reason that an element of musclefatigue was taken into account by considering the pelvicposition at 30 seconds of single leg stance. Since gait analysisallows subtle differences to be detected compared to clinicalanalysis, it was hoped this test would be an effective measureto compare the two approaches

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2.

The notochord exists transiently during the life of most vertebrates.

A notochord is the defining characteristic of members of the phylum Chordata, a large and diverse biological group which includes all animals with spines, or backbones, along with more primitive chordates. The notochord has very large cells which are densely arranged within a protective sheath. Chordates are divided into three subphyla, depending on what form their notochords take and when they appear. At any developmental stage, a notochord acts as a form of support for the animal that possesses it, giving animals the ability to do things such as walking upright.

The most primitive group of chordates, urochordates, also called tunicates, only have a notochord in the larval stages of development. The animals in this group are pelagic, meaning that they are found in the world's oceans, and there are a number of representative species, most of whom are only known to biologists. These animals do provide an insight into the development of chordates, however, showing the notochord at an early stage of development.

The next group of chordates, cephalochordates, also called lancelets, possess a notochord into adulthood, and also live in the ocean. The notochord runs all the way along the body, even up into the head, and the animals lack a protective layer of bone such as a spine. The notochord acts as an axial support, providing a strong core for the animal. The notochord is highly flexible, but not compressible, allowing the animal to move freely without damaging the notochord.

In the highest class of chordates, the vertebrates, the notochord only exists when the animal is in an embryonic form. As the vertebrate develops, the notochord is first ensheathed in and then replaced by spinal vertebrae, protective cases of bone which cover the delicate spinal cord. The spinal column is able to support a much larger and more complex organism, and is much stronger than the notochord. This allowed early vertebrates to make the leap to the land and develop into well known species such as humans.

In all chordates, the notochord exists in some form when the animal is in a larval or embryonic stage[/size]. The development of the notochord from there helps shape what sort of animal it will turn into, whether it be a sac like tunicate or a pure bred Norwegian Fjord horse. The development of the notochord represents a major advance in evolution, as it allowed animals to get much larger and more complex, a drastic departure from simpler orders of animals which existed previously.

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3. NeuroGLIA

Glial cells, commonly called neuroglia or simply glia (Greek for "glue"), are non-neuronal cells that provide support and nutrition, maintain homeostasis, form myelin, and participate in signal transmission in the nervous system. In the human brain, glia are estimated to outnumber neurons by about 10 to 1.

Glial cells provide support and protection for neurons, the other main type of cell in the nervous system. They are thus known as the "glue" of the nervous system. The four main functions of glial cells are to surround neurons and hold them in place, to supply nutrients and oxygen to neurons, to insulate one neuron from another, and to destroy pathogens and remove dead neurons. They also modulate neurotransmission.


The supportive tissue of the nervous system, including the network of branched cells in the central nervous system (astrocytes, microglia, and oligodendrocytes) and the supporting cells of the peripheral nervous system (Schwann cells and satellite cells). Also called glia, reticulum.
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4. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis:

Hyaline arteriolosclerosis can be seen in patients with diabetes mellitus and with hypertension. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis are more common in diabetic sufferers.


5. M.C cardiac lesion seen in pregnancy -->

Mitral stenosis is the most common rheumatic valvular lesion seen in pregnancy due to its prevalence in young women.


6. M.C valve disease due to ----

Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) : is the most common forms of valve disease, affecting 6 percent of all women. In this condition one or both of the valve leaflets is enlarged or floppy, preventing the valve from closing evenly. When the valve shuts, the leaflets bulge into the left atrium. You may have heard mitral valve prolapse referred to as click-murmur syndrome from the sound the valve makes when it closes.

7. Herd Immunity:

In immunology, herd immunity refers to a situation in which a high percentage of a population is immune to a disease, essentially stopping the disease in its tracks because it cannot find new hosts. You may also hear this concept referred to as “community immunity.” The threshold for herd immunity varies, depending on the disease, with more virulent agents requiring vaccination of a higher percentage of the population to crate the desired herd immunity. In addition to being used in disease prevention, community immunity is also utilized to fight ongoing outbreaks.

Most vaccination policies are focused on creating herd immunity. Many countries require vaccinations in childhood, for example, protecting children from common diseases and ensuring that when these diseases enter the population, they cannot prey on children or adults, who have been previously vaccinated or exposed to the disease. The creation of herd immunity is especially important in crowded environments which facilitate the spread of disease, like schools.

Immunologists try to prevent the outbreak of diseases by creating herd immunity, but they are not always successful. Sometimes a disease mutates or is entirely new, or a batch of vaccinations is faulty, or a large percentage of the population fails to get vaccinated, creating a situation in which an outbreak can occur, because much of the population is vulnerable. In the event of an outbreak of a major disease, agencies like the World Health Organization can dispatch teams within days to figure out the cause of the outbreak and develop a vaccine, in the hopes of creating herd immunity to halt the outbreak in its tracks.

For some diseases, herd immunity thresholds are as low as 50%, especially when combined with good hygiene. In other instances, up to 90% of the population may need to be vaccinated to create the desired herd immunity. It is also extremely important to receive regular boosters, as some vaccines lose their efficacy over time, leaving people vulnerable to an outbreak. Herd immunity led to the eradication of smallpox, and it explains why diseases such as polio and diphtheria are rare in developed nations with established vaccination policies.

The concept of herd immunity is often used to encourage reluctant parents to vaccinate their children. In addition to ensuring that their children are protected from fully preventable diseases, childhood vaccinations also benefit society at large by creating herd immunity. Likewise, adults may be reminded to receive boosters to help protect their communities.

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9. Koplik’s spots seen in ---

Also known as: Filatov’s spots, Flindt’s spots Maculae Koplik.

Associated persons:
Nil Feodorovich Filatov
Nikolaj Flindt
Henry Koplik

Description:
Small, grain-of-sand sized, irregular, bright red spots with blue-white centres, occurring on the inside of the cheek (buccal mucosa). Seen only on measles (rubeolae) they are, by themselves, a diagnostic sign in measles. The spots usually occur briefly after the fever begins and a couple of days before the generalized rash appears. Not infrequently, the spots disappear as the eruption develops.

--------------

Koplik's spots are bluish-white spots seen on the mucous membranes of the mouth and are pathognomonic of measles.

They often appear a few days before the rash arrives and can be a useful sign to look for in children known to be exposed to the measles virus.

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10. A ? patient with hypertension & suffering from Thyroiditis, DOC --

L-Thyroxine has long been the treatment drug of choice

Goals of
therapy (Rx) To bring free T4 (L-thyroxine) and TSH levels into normal range and improve symptoms. 1st choice therapy L-thyroxine.


11. Hypocalcemia is seen with the following-->

Hypocalcemia can be seen in chronic renal insufficiency.


Hypocalcemia may be seen in a number of disorders affecting the synthesis or action of PTH or vitamin D or following sequestration of calcium into a functionally inaccessible compartment.

Many of these represent chronic illnesses where hypocalcemic symptoms develop insidiously or where the complication of hypocalcemia is anticipated early and appropriate treatment initiated prior to acute decompensation.


Hypocalcemia occurs in the setting of acute systemic illness (eg, toxic shock syndrome), a finding that has been linked to elevated free fatty acids levels in this setting. It has also been associated with specific drugs, including antineoplastic agents such as doxorubicin and cytarabine and other agents such as ketoconazole, pentamidine, and foscarnet.

12.Most common position of Uterus?
The most common position is for the long axis of the uterus to lie in approximately the same axis as the pelvis, that is, with the upper part tilted forward and the lower end, the cervix, inserted into the top of the vagina. There is therefore an angle between the uterus and the vagina, the long axis of which corresponds to the lower part of the pelvis.

13. Shortest ø of pelvis is-->
The interspinous diameter is the shortest in the pelvis.

Obstetrical Pelvic Diameters
The shape and size of the bony pelvis are important factors determining the outcome of labour. The pelvic inlet is the entrance to the true pelvis. The plane of the pelvic inlet is almost circular in a normal female or gynaecoid pelvis with a slightly greater transverse than anterior-posterior diameter. The true diameter of the pelvic inlet is difficult to assess clinically. An estimate can be made from the diagonal conjugate diameter which is measured between the midpoint of the sacral promontory and the nearest point on the posterior surface of the pubic symphysis. This measure is about 1.5cm greater than the obstetrical conjugate diameter. In practice it is rarely possible to reach the promontory on clinical examination. The pelvic outlet is narrower than the pelvic inlet. The anterior-posterior diameter of the pelvic outlet is measured from the inferior border of the pubic symphysis to the sacrococcygeal joint, and is usually about 12.5cm. The transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet is measured between the ischial tuberosities and is usually about 10cm. The plane of least pelvic dimensions represents the narrowest part of the birth canal. The anteroposterior diameter extends from the inferior margin of the pubic symphysis posteriorly through a line which connects the ischial spines, the transverse diameter. Both diameters can be assessed clinically, and the interspinous diameter is the shortest in the pelvis.

14. Right base of the heart is formed by --->

The base of the heart is opposite to that of the apex is mainly formed by the left atria, but getting some contribution from the right atrium.

15. Right side Mid calvicle the lung ends at which rib --10 Rib?

The border of the right lung lies immediately inside the pleural margin from the cupola down to about the 6th costal cartilages.

It then lies about two spaces above the pleural margin:
it crosses the 6th rib in the midclavicular line and the 8th rib in the midaxillary line, and reaches the vertebral column at the level of the 10th rib.

16. Water supply in hilly areas---?


Developing springs as a source for rural water supply is ideally suited for the following situations: (a). The springs are perennial (at least discharge at the rate of 20 lpcd during peak summer) and of good water quality (to be tested for chemical and bacteriological) contamination); (b) Chance of polluting the catchment is minimum; (c) The beneficiary population lives within close proximity of the springs preferably in the down stream areas of the springs.

In the era of decentralized planning, community mobilization, resource mobilization, cost sharing, community management, cost recovery and operation and maintenance plays a significant role in the water supply schemes. In 1989, the Pazhakulam Social Service Society (PASSS) has taken the initiative for the development of natural springs as alternative safe drinking water to the communities in the remote hilly areas of Southern Kerala. The main objective of the spring development programme was to demonstrate to the Government, Non-Governmental Organizations and the people of Kerala, that it is possible to design and develop alternate delivery of drinking water through private sector initiatives. The concept of rejuvenation of springs is an alternative mechanism to increase the coverage and accessibility of safe water supply in the remote areas. PASSS has taken the leadership in demonstrating the programme since 1991 and more than 1150 springs have already been developed with the active participation of the community. The salient features of the programme is as follows:

Established water committees as the nucleus of community organization, participation and management of the programme; Capacity building and empowerment; Capital cost sharing mechanism has become mandatory;
Full O & M by water committees/community; Low cost participatory design; Panchayat institutions as a partner; Integration of water, sanitation and hygiene; Water quality monitoring; Community monitoring and follow up.


17. Prophylaxis DOC for Meningitis -->

Meningitis is an inflammation of the leptomeninges and underlying subarachnoid cerebrospinal fluid


Cephalexin/Cefazolin


PO/IV
Stable vs Staph penicillinase
Spectrum: MSSA, PSSP, most E. coli, and some Klebs
Can be dose thrice weekly in HD pts
[1.5 grams IV TIW]
DoC: surgical prophylaxis, bacterial peritonitis in CAPD pts [1 gm in the dwell bag]

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Ampicillin/Amoxicillin


Amp (IV, PO) Amox (PO)
Spectrum: PenG + H. flu and some E. coli
DoC: Listeria monocytogenes and
Enterococcus [Amp 2g IV q4h]

Dental Prophylaxis
Amox 1 gram PO x 1 prior to appt.
Integral in H. pylori regimens
ADRs
Non-allergic rashes (9%) – esp. when associated with a viral illness (mononucleosis - EBV)
Amox better tolerated PO and better absorbed (Amp must be taken on empty stomach)
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more qns from FMGE sept 08

who discovered xrays?
roentgen

which disease is X linked recessive?
Hemophlia

most common cause of death in people older than 70 yrs?
cardiovascular disease, cancer,respiratory disease?

in retinal detachment?? options were red colour, blue colour, green colour? i cant remember exactly.

in which poisoning shud the vitrous humor be preserved?

malignant pustule?
anthrax

a qn from varicocele frm surgery, i cant remember..


frnds, there were over 20 questions frm Ophthalmology and Biochemistry and many from parasitology in Microbiology ..
few questions were simple and thats all we can recollect! there were many confusing questions too...
all da best for 2009....


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Prophylaxis DOC for Meningitis?


PRESCRIPTIONS FOR PROPHYLAXIS OF MENINGITIS :
PROCEDURES FOR GGHB COMMUNITY PHARMACISTS

· Identify a prescription for meningitis prophylaxis:

Rifampicin 600mg (or 10mg/kg for children) twice daily for 2 days

or

Ciprofloxacin 500mg as a single dose (although not yet licensed for this purpose).

Establish the patient’s eligibility for exemption from prescription charge.

If not exempt via NHS, reassure the patient that a special GGHB exemption will apply.

Dispense the prescription.

Please do not collect the prescription charge.

Please submit an invoice for the prescription charge on headed notepaper to myself at GGHB Headquarters, noting patient name and date.

Submit the prescription in the non-exempt category to the PPD.


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PRESCRIPTIONS FOR PROPHYLAXIS OF MENINGOCOCCAL SEPTICAEMIA

You will be aware of the increased incidence of meningitis in recent weeks. All cases are notified to the GGHB Public Health Department. Treatment of the individual case in an acute hospital is accompanied by management of the public health implications in primary care. Typically, specialists in Communicable Disease will identify close family and friends of the patient who may require prophylactic treatment. The treatment options currently are:

Rifampicin 600mg (or 10mg/kg for children) twice daily for 2 days

or

Ciprofloxacin 500mg as a single dose (although not yet licensed for this purpose)

The options for supply of these prescriptions are as follows:

community administration programme (e.g. school, church)

hospital supply

supply through the local GEMS centre

prescription on HBP forms by the Public Health Consultant on call

prescription on GP10

The last of these is frequently the preferred option. Treatment needs to be started quickly but not urgently and both drugs need to be used cautiously in combination with other therapies. Community pharmacists can reinforce these points.

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1 Anaemia is seen with all except?

Anemia
Definition
If you have anemia, people may say you have tired blood. That's because anemia — a condition in which there aren't enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your tissues — can make you feel tired.

There are many forms of anemia, each with its own cause. Anemia can be temporary or long term, and it can range from mild to severe.

Anemia is a common blood disorder. Women and people with chronic diseases are at increased risk of the condition.

If you suspect you have anemia, see your doctor. Anemia can be a sign of serious illnesses. Treatments for anemia range from taking supplements to undergoing medical procedures. You may be able to prevent some types of anemia by eating a healthy, varied diet.

Symptoms
The main symptom of most types of anemia is fatigue. Other anemia symptoms include:

•Weakness
•Pale skin
•A fast or irregular heartbeat
•Shortness of breath
•Chest pain
•Dizziness
•Cognitive problems
•Numbness or coldness in your extremities
•Headache
Initially, anemia can be so mild it goes unnoticed. But signs and symptoms increase as the condition worsens.

Causes
Blood consists of both a liquid called plasma and cells. Floating within the plasma are three types of blood cells:

•White blood cells. These blood cells fight infection.
•Platelets. These blood cells help your blood clot after a cut.
•Red blood cells (erythrocytes). These blood cells carry oxygen from your lungs, via your bloodstream, to your brain and the other organs and tissues. Your body needs a supply of oxygenated blood to function. Oxygenated blood helps give your body its energy and your skin a healthy glow.
Red blood cells contain hemoglobin — a red, iron-rich protein that gives blood its red color. Hemoglobin enables red blood cells to carry oxygen from your lungs to all parts of your body, and to carry carbon dioxide from other parts of the body to the lungs so that it can be exhaled.

Most blood cells, including red blood cells, are produced regularly in your bone marrow — a red, spongy material found within the cavities of many of your large bones. To produce hemoglobin and red blood cells, your body needs iron, protein and vitamins from the foods you eat.

Anemia is a state in which the number of red blood cells or the hemoglobin in them is below normal. When you're anemic, your body produces too few healthy red blood cells, loses too many of them or destroys them faster than they can be replaced. As a result, your blood is low on red blood cells to carry oxygen to your tissues — leaving you fatigued. Common types of anemia and their causes include:

•Iron deficiency anemia. This most common form of anemia affects about one in five women, half of pregnant women and 3 percent of men in the United States. The cause is a shortage of the element iron in your body. Your bone marrow needs iron to make hemoglobin. Without adequate iron, your body can't produce enough hemoglobin for red blood cells. The result is iron deficiency anemia.

One way your body gets needed iron is when blood cells die — the iron in them is recycled and used to produce new blood cells. So, if you lose blood, you lose iron. Women with heavy periods who lose a lot of blood each month during menstruation are at risk of iron deficiency anemia. Slow, chronic blood loss from a source within the body — such as an ulcer, a colon polyp or even colon cancer — also can lead to iron loss and iron deficiency anemia.

Your body also gets iron from the foods you eat. An iron-poor diet can lead to this anemia. In pregnant women, a growing fetus can deplete the mother's store of iron, leading to iron deficiency anemia.

•Vitamin deficiency anemias. In addition to iron, your body needs folate and vitamin B-12 to produce sufficient numbers of healthy red blood cells. A diet lacking in these and other key nutrients can cause decreased red blood cell production. People who have an intestinal disorder that affects the absorption of nutrients are prone to this type of anemia. Some people are unable to absorb vitamin B-12 for a variety of reasons and develop vitamin B-12 deficiency anemia, which is sometimes called pernicious anemia. Vitamin deficiency anemias fall into a group of anemias called megaloblastic anemias, in which the bone marrow produces large, abnormal red blood cells.
•Anemia of chronic disease. Certain chronic diseases — such as cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn's disease and other chronic inflammatory diseases — can interfere with the production of red blood cells, resulting in chronic anemia. Kidney failure also can be a cause of anemia. The kidneys produce a hormone called erythropoietin, which stimulates your bone marrow to produce red blood cells. A shortage of erythropoietin, which can result from kidney failure or be a side effect of chemotherapy, can result in a shortage of red blood cells.
•Aplastic anemia. This is a life-threatening anemia caused by a decrease in the bone marrow's ability to produce all three types of blood cells — red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. Many times, the cause of aplastic anemia is unknown, but it's believed to often be an autoimmune disease. Some factors that can be responsible for this type of anemia include chemotherapy, radiation therapy, environmental toxins, pregnancy and lupus.
•Anemias associated with bone marrow disease. A variety of diseases, such as leukemia and myelodysplasia, a pre-leukemic condition, can cause anemia by affecting blood production in the bone marrow. The effects of these types of cancer and cancer-like disorders vary from a mild alteration in blood production to a complete, life-threatening shutdown of the blood-making process. Additionally, other cancers of the blood or bone marrow, such as multiple myeloma, myeloproliferative disorders and lymphoma, can cause anemia.
•Hemolytic anemias. This group of anemias develops when red blood cells are destroyed faster than bone marrow can replace them. Certain blood diseases can cause increased red blood cell destruction. Autoimmune disorders can cause your body to produce antibodies to red blood cells, destroying them prematurely. Certain medications, such as some antibiotics used to treat infections, also can break down red blood cells. Hemolytic anemias may cause yellowing of the skin (jaundice) and an enlarged spleen.
•Sickle cell anemia. This inherited and sometimes serious anemia, which affects mainly people of African and Arabic descent, is caused by a defective form of hemoglobin that forces red blood cells to assume an abnormal crescent (sickle) shape. These irregular-shaped red blood cells die prematurely, resulting in a chronic shortage of red blood cells. Sickle-shaped red blood cells can also block blood flow through small blood vessels in the body, producing other, often painful, symptoms.
•Other anemias. There are several other, rarer forms of anemia, such as thalassemia and anemias caused by defective hemoglobin.
Sometimes, no cause of anemia can be identified.

Risk factors
These factors place you at increased risk of anemia:

•Poor diet. Anyone — young or old — whose diet is consistently low in iron and vitamins, especially folate, is at risk of anemia. Your body needs iron, protein and vitamins to produce sufficient numbers of red blood cells.
•Intestinal disorders. Having an intestinal disorder that affects the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine — such as Crohn's disease and celiac disease — puts you at risk of anemia. Surgical removal of or surgery to the parts of the small intestine where nutrients are absorbed can lead to nutrient deficiencies and anemia.
•Menstruation. In general, women are at greater risk of iron deficiency anemia than are men. That's because women lose blood — and with it, iron — each month during menstruation.
•Pregnancy. Pregnant women are at an increased risk of iron deficiency anemia because their iron stores have to serve the increased blood volume of the mother as well as be a source of hemoglobin for the growing fetus.
•Chronic conditions. For example, if you have cancer, kidney or liver failure, or another chronic condition, you may be at risk of what's called anemia of chronic disease. These conditions can lead to a shortage of red blood cells. Slow, chronic blood loss from an ulcer or other source within the body can deplete your body's store of iron, leading to iron deficiency anemia.
•Family history. If your family has a history of an inherited anemia, you also may be at increased risk of the condition.
Certain infections, blood diseases and autoimmune disorders, exposure to toxic chemicals, and the use of some medications can affect red blood cell production and lead to anemia. Other people at risk of anemia are people with diabetes, people who are dependent on alcohol (alcohol interferes with the absorption of folic acid) and people who adhere to a strict vegetarian diet, who may not get enough iron or vitamin B-12 in their diet.

When to seek medical advice
See your doctor if you're feeling fatigued for unexplained reasons, especially if you're at risk of anemia. Some anemias, such as iron deficiency anemia, are common. But don't assume that if you're tired, you must be anemic. Fatigue has many causes besides anemia.

Some people learn that their hemoglobin is low, which indicates anemia, when they go to donate blood. Low hemoglobin may be a temporary problem remedied by eating more iron-rich foods or taking a multivitamin containing iron. However, it may also be a warning sign of blood loss in your body that may be causing you to be deficient in iron. If you're told that you can't donate blood because of low hemoglobin, ask your doctor if you should be concerned.

If you have a family history of an inherited anemia, such as sickle cell anemia, talk to your doctor and possibly a genetic counselor about your risk and what risks you may pass on to your children.

Tests and diagnosis
Doctors diagnose anemia with the help of a medical history, a physical exam and blood tests, including a complete blood count (CBC). This blood test measures levels of red blood cells and hemoglobin in your blood. Some of your blood may also be examined under a microscope to study the size, shape and color of your red blood cells, which may indicate a diagnosis. For example, in iron deficiency anemia, red blood cells are smaller and paler in color than normal. In vitamin deficiency anemias, red blood cells are enlarged and fewer in number.

If you receive a diagnosis of anemia, your doctor may order additional tests to determine the underlying cause. For example, iron deficiency anemia can result from chronic bleeding of known or unknown ulcers, benign polyps in the colon, colon cancer, tumors, or kidney failure. Your doctor may test for these and other conditions that may underlie the anemia.

Occasionally, it may be necessary to study a sample of your bone marrow to diagnose anemia.

Complications
When anemia is severe enough, it may interfere with your ability to do everyday tasks. You may be too exhausted to work or play. Although anemia is often treatable, it may take several weeks to months for red blood cell levels to return to normal after treatment. Ask your doctor what to expect from treatment.

If you've been diagnosed with anemia — it's often detected during routine blood tests — ask your doctor what treatment is necessary. Then be sure to follow through on treatment, even if you quickly start to feel better. Left unchecked, anemia can lead to a rapid or irregular heartbeat — an arrhythmia. Your heart must pump more blood to compensate for the lack of oxygen in the blood when you're anemic. This can even lead to congestive heart failure. Untreated pernicious anemia can lead to nerve damage and decreased mental function, as vitamin B-12 is important not only for healthy red blood cells but also for optimal nerve and brain function.

Some inherited anemias, such as sickle cell anemia, can be serious and lead to life-threatening complications. Losing a lot of blood quickly results in acute, severe anemia and can be fatal.

Treatments and drugs
Anemia treatment depends on the cause:

•Iron deficiency anemia. This form of anemia is treated with iron supplements, which you may need to take for several months or longer. If the underlying cause of iron deficiency is loss of blood — other than from menstruation — the source of the bleeding must be located and stopped. This may involve surgery.
•Vitamin deficiency anemias. Pernicious anemia is treated with injections — often lifetime injections — of vitamin B-12. Folic acid deficiency anemia is treated with folic acid supplements.
•Anemia of chronic disease. There's no specific treatment for this type of anemia. Doctors focus on treating the underlying disease. Iron supplements and vitamins generally don't help this type of anemia. However, if symptoms become severe, a blood transfusion or injections of synthetic erythropoietin, a hormone normally produced by the kidneys, may help stimulate red blood cell production and ease fatigue.
•Aplastic anemia. Treatment for this serious anemia may include blood transfusions to boost levels of red blood cells. You may need a bone marrow transplant if your bone marrow is diseased and can't make healthy blood cells. You may need immune-suppressing medications to lessen your immune system's response and give the transplanted bone marrow a chance to start functioning again.
•Anemias associated with bone marrow disease. Treatment of these various diseases can range from simple medication to chemotherapy to bone marrow transplantation. Treatment of these types of anemia usually involves a consultation from a blood specialist (hematologist).
•Hemolytic anemias. Managing hemolytic anemias includes avoiding suspect medications, treating related infections and taking drugs that suppress your immune system, which may be attacking your red blood cells. Short courses of treatment with steroids or gamma globulin can help suppress your immune system's attack on your red blood cells. If the condition has caused an enlarged spleen, you may need to have your spleen removed. The spleen — a small organ below your rib cage on the left side — filters out and stores defective red blood cells. Certain hemolytic anemias can cause the spleen to become enlarged with damaged red blood cells.
•Sickle cell anemia. Treatment for this incurable anemia may include the administration of oxygen, pain-relieving drugs, and oral and intravenous fluids to reduce pain and prevent complications. Doctors also commonly use blood transfusions, folic acid supplements and antibiotics. A bone marrow transplant may be an effective treatment in some circumstances. A cancer drug called hydroxyurea (Droxia, Hydrea) also is used to treat sickle cell anemia in adults.
Prevention
Many types of anemia can't be prevented. However, you can help avoid iron deficiency anemia and vitamin deficiency anemias by eating a healthy, varied diet that includes foods rich in iron, folate and vitamin B-12.

The best sources of iron are beef and other meats. Other foods rich in iron include beans, lentils, iron-fortified cereals, dark green leafy vegetables, dried fruit, nuts and seeds. Folate, and its synthetic form, folic acid, can be found in citrus juices and fruits, dark green leafy vegetables, legumes and fortified breakfast cereals. Vitamin B-12 is plentiful in meat and dairy products. Foods containing vitamin C, such as citrus fruits, help increase iron absorption.

Eating plenty of iron-containing foods is particularly important for people who have high iron requirements, such as children — iron is needed during growth spurts — and pregnant and menstruating women. Adequate iron intake is also crucial for infants, strict vegetarians and long-distance runners.

Doctors may prescribe iron supplements or multivitamins containing iron for people with high iron requirements. But iron supplements are appropriate only when you need more iron than a balanced diet can provide. Don't assume that if you're tired that you simply need to take iron supplements. Overloading your body with iron can be dangerous.

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Anaemia is a condition in which the haemoglobin concentration in the blood is below a defined level, resulting in a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells.

About half of all cases of anaemia can be attributed to iron deficiency; other common causes include infections, such as malaria and schistosomiasis, and genetic factors, which result in thalassaemias and sickle-cell disease.

In its severe form, anaemia is associated with fatigue, weakness, dizziness and drowsiness. Pregnant women and children are particularly vulnerable.

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19 ) Dose of Folic acid during pregnancy?


Taking 400 micrograms of synthetic folic acid daily from fortified foods and/or supplements has been suggested.

The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for folate equivalents for pregnant women is 600-800 micrograms, twice the normal RDA of 400 micrograms for women who are not pregnant.


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Prophylaxis vs Neural Tube Defects (NTD):

The Society of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of Canada , in its 1993 Policy Statement, recommended that all women of child bearing potential, whether planning pregnancy or not, should consider maintaining a folic acid intake of at least 0.4 mg daily, either in the diet or as a supplement.

Pregnant women with no previous history of fetal NTD and no other predisposing factors are advised to maintain an intake of at least 0.4 mg daily until 10 to 12 weeks after last menstrual period.
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20) Vitamin “A” dosage is given in….? (?. of doses.)

The World Health Organization recommends single-large-dose vitamin A supplementation for postpartum women in areas of prevalent vitamin A deficiency; neonatal dosing is under consideration.

It is safe to give fertile women, independentof their vitamin A status, as much as 10,000IU (3000 µg RE) daily at any time duringpregnancy.


21) What is Apoptosis?

Apoptosis, by contrast, is a process in which cells play an active role in their own death (which is why apoptosis is often referred to as cell suicide).

Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, is a normal component of the development and health of multicellular organisms. Cells die in response to a variety of stimuli and during apoptosis they do so in a controlled, regulated fashion.

This makes apoptosis distinct from another form of cell death called necrosis in which uncontrolled cell death leads to lysis of cells, inflammatory responses and, potentially, to serious health problems.


22) Extrinsic factor in blood coagulation? (PT/PTT)

PT, PTT, D-DIMER

This panel of tests is used to evaluate the extrinsic coagulation system. They may also aid in screening for congenital deficiencies of factors II, V, VII, X as well as deficiencies of prothrombin dysfibrinogenemia, and afibrinogenemia. Levels of PT, PTT and D-dimmer, can determine heparin effect, warfarin anticoagulant therapy, liver failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), vitamin K deficiency. This test includes the following: prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT), and D-dimmer.

Prothrombin time (PT)

This test is used to evaluate the adequacy of the extrinsic system and common pathway in the clotting mechanism. Prothrombin time (PT) test provides a control for long-term anticoagulant therapy that usually involves the use of a coumarin derivative (eg, Coumadin®).This therapy attempts to impede thrombus formation without the threat of mortality from hemorrhage.

Partial Thromboplastin Time

This test is used to evaluate the intrinsic coagulation system. It is also used to monitor heparin therapy, to aid in detecting classical hemophilia A, Christmas disease, and detection of congenital deficiencies of factors II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII. PTT is used to screen for the presence of dysfibrinogenemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, liver failure, congenital hypofibrinogenemia, vitamin K deficiency, congenital deficiency of Fitzgerald factor, congenital deficiency of prekallikrein, high molecular weight kininogen, and circulatory anticoagulant.

D-DIMER

This test is a very specific confirmatory test for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). This test is also used for the detection of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and to detect acute myocardial infarction and unstable angina. The Fragment D-dimmer assess both thrombin and plasmin activity.



23) Curschmann’s spirals are due to?

Curschmann's spirals have been observed in the sputum of patients affected by lung cancer, asthma, chronic bronchitis, or in asymptomatic smokers.

Spirally twisted masses of mucus occurring in the sputum in bronchial asthma.

Curschmann's spirals:

coiled, basophilic plugs of mucus formed in the lower airways and found in sputum and tracheal washings; indicate chronic obstruction.

Curschmann's Spirals refer to parts of the desquamated epithelium seen in biopsies from asthmatic patients. They are named after German physician Heinrich Curschmann (1846-1910). They are often seen in association with eosinophilic infiltration and Charcot-Leyden crystals.

However, to date, their clinical significance and pathogenesis have not been completely explained.


24) Bell’s palsy?
WHAT IS BELL'S PALSY?
Bells palsy is a condition that causes the facial muscles to weaken or become paralyzed. It's caused by trauma to the 7th cranial nerve, and is not permanent.

WHY IS IT CALLED BELL'S PALSY?
The condition is named for Sir Charles Bell, a Scottish surgeon who studied the nerve and its innervation of the facial muscles 200 years ago.

HOW COMMON IS BELL'S PALSY?
Bells palsy is not as uncommon as is generally believed. Worldwide statistics set the frequency at approximately .02% of the population (with geographical variations). In human terms this is 1 of every 5000 people, and 40,000 Americans every year.

IS BELL'S PALSY ALWAYS ON THE SAME SIDE?
The percentage of left or right side cases is approximately equal, and remains equal for recurrences.

IS THERE ANY DIFFERENCE BECAUSE OF GENDER OR RACE?
The incidence of Bells palsy in males and females, as well as in the various races is also approximately equal. The chances of the condition being mild or severe, and the rate of recovery is also equal.

WHAT CONDITIONS CAN INCREASE THE CHANCE OF HAVING BELL'S PALSY?
Older people are more likely to be afflicted, but children are not immune to it. Children tend to recover well. Diabetics are more than 4 times more likely to develop Bells palsy than the general population. The last trimester of pregnancy is considered to be a time of increased risk for Bell's palsy. Conditions that compromise the immune system such as HIV or sarcoidosis increase the odds of facial paralysis occurring and recurring.

CAN BELL'S PALSY AFFECT BOTH SIDES OF THE FACE?
It is possible to have bilateral Bells palsy, but it's rare, accounting for less than 1% of cases. With bilateral facial palsy, it's important to rule out all other possible diagnoses with thorough diagnostic tests.

CAN BELL'S PALSY AFFECT OTHER PARTS OF THE BODY?
Bells palsy should not cause any other part of the body to become paralyzed, weak or numb. If any other areas are affected Bell's palsy is not the cause of the symptoms, and further testing must be done.

HOW DO THE SYMPTOMS OF BELL'S PALSY PROGRESS?
Very quickly. Most people either wake up to find they have Bells palsy, or have symptoms such as a dry eye or tingling around their lips that progress to classic Bell's palsy during that same day. Occasionally symptoms may take a few days to be recognizable as Bells palsy. The degree of paralysis should peak within several days of onset - never in longer than 2 weeks (3 weeks maximum for Ramsey Hunt syndrome). A warning sign may be neck pain, or pain in or behind the ear prior to palsy, but it is not usually recognized in first-time cases.

IS BELL'S PALSY CONTAGIOUS?
No, it is not contagious. People with Bells palsy can return to work and resume normal activity as soon as they feel up to it.

WHAT ABOUT RECOVERY FROM BELL'S PALSY?
Approximately 50% of Bells palsy patients will have essentially complete recoveries in a short time. Another 35% will have good recoveries in less than a year.

Regardless of the trigger, Bell's palsy is best described as an event - trauma to the nerve. As with any other injury, healing follows. The quality and duration of recovery is dependent on the severity of the initial injury. If the nerve has suffered nothing more than a mild trauma, recovery can be very fast, taking several days to several weeks. An "average" recovery is likely to take between a few weeks and a few months. The nerve regenerates at a rate of approximately 1-2 millimeters per day, and can continue to regenerate for 18 months, probably even longer. Improvement of appearance can continue beyond that time frame.

IS MUSCLE ATROPHY A CONCERN?
Not as a rule. It takes longer for the muscles to start to atrophy than it takes for most people to fully recover.

IS BELL'S PALSY LIKELY TO HAPPEN AGAIN?
The possibility of recurrence had been thought to be as high as 10 - 20%. These figures have been lowered as more has been learned about conditions that are now diagnosed as other types of facial palsies. Estimates of the rate of recurrence still vary widely, from around 4 - 14%. Most recent reports hover at 5 - 9%. The average timespan between recurrences is 10 years.



25) In Dialysis which toxicity is seen commonly?

Aluminum toxicity

Aluminum toxicity, prevalent among individuals with chronic renal failure, is associated with disabling osteomalacia, encephalopathy, and anemia.

The control of aluminum intake has included standards to limit the amount of aluminum in the dialysis fluid in addition to the use of nonaluminum containing phosphate binders.

Deferoxamine mesylate, a heavy metal chelating agent, is used to remove aluminum from the tissues of dialysis patients. Chelation therapy has resulted in improvements of clinical symptoms and bone histology. Ocular, auditory, and infectious adverse effects have occurred with the use of deferoxamine.


26) TOC for Gastric ulcer?

For people with Helicobacter pylori infection, the main goal is to get rid of the bacteria that causes the infection.

H2 receptor antagonist such as famotidine (Pepcid) or nizatidine (Axid) or a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec) or esomeprazole (Nexium) to suppress acid, combined with two antibiotics.

Those who do not have an H. pylori infection may be prescribed ulcer-healing medications such as antacids, H2 receptor antagonists, or proton pump inhibitors. Long-term treatment may be needed.

If the ulcer bleeds, endoscopy can control bleeding in most cases.

Surgery may be recommended for persons who do not respond to medicines or endoscopy. Surgical procedures for gastric ulcers include:

Vagotomy -- cuts the vagus nerve, which controls the stomach's production of gastric acid
Partial gastrectomy -- removes part of the stomach

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

27) Squamous non-keratinizing is seen in….?

Squamous nonkeratinizing

Function: barrier, protection.
Location: wet surfaces: oral cavity, esophagus, and vagina.

Origin: ectoderm
• cells of basal layer (stratum germinatinum, stratum basale)

• cells of stratum spinosum

• squamous cells


Stratified squamous keratinizing (epidermis)

Function: barrier, protection.

Location: dry surfaces: skin.

Origin: ectoderm
• keratinocytes of stratum germinatinum (stratum basale)

• keratinocytes of stratum spinosum

• keratinocytes of stratum granulosum

• keratinocytes of stratum lucidum

• squames of keratin of stratum corneum

• melanocytes

Stratified cuboidal & columnar

Function: barrier, conduit.

Location: sweat gland, ducts of exocrine glands, anorectal junction.

Origin: ectoderm


Transitional

Function: barrier, distensible property.

Location: renal calyces, ureters, bladder, urethra.

Origin: mesoderm

fmge 2007

diseases?
A. Trachoma



Anatomy

1.Muscle which helps to open E.tube while opening mouth(Tensor tympani, Tensor palate, _, All)

2. The order of vessels in the Intercostal space from above to below(VAN, AVN, ANV)

3. Branches of Int iliac artery except (Ovarian a., sup vesical, med rectal, inf rectal)

4. Bipolar neuron is seen in ( parasympathetic ganglion, sympa ganglion, cochlear ganglion)

5. Inversion & eversion of foot joints at- Subtalor joints

6. No of lobes in liver as per COUINAUD’s classification- (3,4,6,8)

7. Umbilical cord contains – 2 arteries & 1 vein

8. Lig Arteriosum is derived from- Ductus arteriosus

9. MI ligament preventing uterine prolapse-(cardinal, teres uteri, broad lig)



Biochemistry



10. Water soluble form of vit K(phyllaquinone, menaquinione, menadione, )

11. Single oral dose for vit D prophylaxis(50000,100000,200000 U)

12. Test for RNA detection-Northern blotting

13 .SSA-Glutamate in 6th posn in B chain by valine

14. Chitin is a polymer of-N acetyl glucosamine

15. Watson’s DNA model is –Right handed anti parallel

16. Wheat lacking in(lysine, leucine, threonine)

17. No of ATP produced by complete metabolism of pyruvate(12,15,18,30)

18. Final product of purine metabolism(uric acid, NH3+CO2)

19. T4 is formed from- Tyrosine

20. Daily required dose of Fe in an adult man(5,10,20,30)

21. Nieman pick dise due to def of-Sphingomyelinase

22. Saturated fatty acids max in(coconut oil, ground nut oil, palm oil)

23. MI indicator of protein efficacy(biol value, net protein utln, chemical score, protein efficacy ratio)

24. Dietary fibres rich in(polysaccharides, monosaccharides, non starch polysaccharides)

25. Dietary % of energy from fat should be less than(10,20,30,40)

26. Unconj bilirubinemia seen in all except(Dubin Johnson, Criggler najjar, Gilbert’s, Hemolytic anemia)

27. Source of NH3 in brain - Glutamine

28. BMR depends mainly on- body surface area

















Physiology



29. Normal PH of blood- 7.36-7.44

30. Longest life span for(lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes)

31. Normal glomerular capillary pressure(15,25,35,45 mm Hg)

32. Ion which is not interfered at loop of Henle(Na, K, Cl, urea)

33. MC Hb in adult(Hb A1, HbA2, Hb F)

34. Feacal mass mainly derived from(indigested food, undigested food, intestinal flora, intestinal secretions)

35. Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except(adrenal medulla, NMJ, bronchial smooth muscle)

36. Anterior Pituitary secretes (ADH, oxytocin, FSH, GnRH)

37. Mucin acini cells characteristic all except(peripherally placed nucleus,distinct lumen,zymogen granules,transparent)

38. In synaptic cleft max concn of( Na, K, Ca, protein anions)

39. Charecteristic for smooth muscle cells(don’t require Ca, cant do recurrent contraction, cant do sustained contraction)

40. All or none law is obeyed by (spike potential, post synaptic potential, )

41. All carried through lat spino thalamic tract except(crude touch, pressure, pain, Temperature)



Pathology



42. Longitudinal ulcers seen in – Typhoid fever

43. Amoebic ulcer is – flask shaped

44. TB ulcer edges are- undermined

45. Crescent shaped gametocytes seen in- Falciparum malaria

46. HIV affects (CD4, CD8, CD4+double +ve, CD8+)

47. Few RBCs,few neutrophils with some degraded fibrin in lungs seen in(grey hepatisation, red hepatisation, viral pneumonia)

48. Brunner’s glands in –Deodenum

49. Organ which undergoes involution- Thymus

50. Minimal change GN, all are true except(absence of podocytes, normal glomerulus, poor response to steroids)

51. Bence Johns Protein is – light chain monoclonal

52. True about NK cells except(mediates type IV hypersensitivity, kill viruses, are large granular lymphocytes)

53. MHC is important in pathogenesis of- ? auto immune diseases

54. SLE is- Type III hypersensitivity

55. Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited – AD

56. Which is not inherited XR(G6PD def, Duschene’s MD, Cystic fibrosis)

57. Lung Ca with worst prognosis( small cell, adeno. Squamous cell)

58. Ovarian tumours MC arises from (epithelium, germ cell, stroma)

59. Cholera toxin acts on (ADP G1, ADP Gs, _,_,)

60. FAMILIAL hypercholesterolemia due to- LDL receptor deficiency

61. Exudative pleural effusion seen in all except(CCF, Ca, Pneumonia, Nephrotic syndrome)

62. Most active form at tissue level(T3, T4, mono iod thyronin)

63. Immediate response in acute inflammation except(granuloma formation, vasodilatation, neutrophil migration)

64. Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of(monocytes ¯ophages, T cells, B cells)

65. Invasive Ca differs from Ca in situ by (basement membrane involvement, pleomorphism, _)

66. Pleural effusion in vertical positon MC accumulates in (costo phrenic recess, oblique fissure, horizontal fissure)



Microbiology



67. Babesiosis in India MC transmitted by – Ticks

68. Q-fever is caused by- Coxiella burnetti

69. Lymes disease is caused by- Borrellia burdgofferi

70. Megaloblastic anemia caused by – Diphyllobotrum latum

71. Paragonismus westermani is commonly called – Lung fluke

72. Toxic Shock Syndrome MC caused by- Staphylococci

73. Sabin Feldman test used to Dx- TOXOPLASMOSIS

74. Bedside rapid urease test is Dx of(Proteus, H.pylori)

75. Staph.aureus is a normal inhabitant of(nose , SKIN ,throat)

76. LRTI is MC caused by (streptococci,viruses,H.influenza, mycoplasma)

77. VR media used for –V.cholera

78. Which vaccine should not be kept in freezer- DPT

79. Promastigote form of Leishmania seen in (NNN medium, spleen , Bone marrow, lymph node)

80. All are dimorphic fungi except(Cryptococcus, histoplasma, paracoccidia, blastomycoses)

81. Which is Gram +ve(fusobacterium, bacteroids, artonella, ar----lla)



Pharmacology



82. Anti TB drug causing gout- Pyrazinamide

83. Prolactine is stimulated by(TRH, ACTH, GnRH, Dopamine)

84. GH is inhibited by (Bromocriptine, glucose, exercise, sleep)

85. In a patient with hepatitis which ATT is most safe( S+E, H+E, R+E, S+H)

86. Prokinetic drug with no dopamine antagonism(metachlopramide, domperidone, mosapride, chlorpromazine)

87. Warfarin acts by inhibiting – factors II, VII, IX, X

88. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.Tactics include all except( switch on to warfarin, cannot be substituted with LMWH, stop Heparin,_)

89. Warfarin metabolism is inhibited by( Ketoconazole, Pheno, Rifampicin, chronic alchoholism)

90. Disulfiram like rn is caused by all except(Griseofulvin, metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin)

91. Drug not interferes with antacid( Azithromycin, Tetracyclin, Norfloxacin,Ranitidine)

92. All are B-lactam inhibitors except(Astreonam, Sulbactam, Tazactam, Clavulenic acid)

93. Penicillin is(safe in pregnancy, is 6 amino penicill acid, all are not antipseudomonal)

94. Not used as an antacid(NaHCO3, AlOH3, SiO2, MgSO4)

95. DOC in LGV- Tetracycline

96. Lactic acidosis in DM therapy caused by – Phenformin

97. Pancreatitis is a S/E of( Didanosine, Zidovudine,Zalcitabine)

98. B-blockers are used in all except( A-V block, angina, FAMILIAL TREMOR )



Forensic Medicine



99. Female can give consent for SEX if above (16, 12, 19, 21)

100. Post marteum stiffening is called –Rigor mortis

101. Most informative test in parental identification-( DNA finger print, HLA)

102. Lesion with intact SKIN but internal Pathology - Contusion



PSM



103. Rural community health centre for(30000,60000,100000,200000) population

104. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended by WHO upto( 6, 4, 3, 9 months)

105. Patient made to walk early after Surgery , this is to- reduce disability

106. Which is secondary prevention(Cx pap smear checking, vaccination , admitting disabled child in special schools)

107. Temporary contraceptive method of choice in a 37 yr well educated woman- (Diaphragm, IUCD, mala N, mala D)

108. Best protection from STD & Syphilis by – condom

109. Method used to compare cost of 2 studies- cost accounting

110. Survillance is_

111. PQLI includes- IMR, Life expectancy at 1 year, literacy

112. Test which detects TRUE NEGATIVE- Specificity

113. Disease usually not seen in a country but brought from abroad is – EXOTIC

114. Couple protection rate should be – 60%

115. Ideal couples are( just married, men 20-40 women 16-45,)

116. Fastest population growth in ( India, Kuwait, Pakistan, Srilanka)

117. A new drug not prevents a disease but reduce death due to that disease then- PREVALENCE increases

118. Socially attained behavior is( culture, custom, socialization_)

119. The upper line in growth chart is( 50 , 60, 70, 80 th percentile)

120. Who should be trained in a community for house to house surveys

121. MI factor deciding results of a clinical trial( Effective randomization, 50% Rx with placebo & 50% with drugs, Inclusion of all age groups, 100% follow up)









Ophthalmology



122. Trachoma in ( 1, 2, 3, 5 million people all over world)

123. MCC of vision loss in HIV( CMV retinitis, Toxoplasma, HIV retinitis)

124. Dendritic ulcer seen in – HERPEZ

125. Most serious complication after traumatic injury to one eye – SYMPATHETIC OPHTHALMIA

126. ROSETTE shaped cataract in – TRAUMA

127. Rx of choice in CAG ( surgical iridectomy, laser iridectomy, pilocarpine, trabeculectomy)

128. Ideal site for IOL- Posterior capsule

129. Laser used for IOL inpln- NdYAG

130. Muscle 1st to be affected in Thyroid ophthalmopathy.- INF RECTUS

131. Axial length of eye ball- 24 mm

132. 1mm increase in axial length leads to increase the power by ( 1,2,3,4 D)

133. Argyll Robertson pupil seen in – Neuro syphilis

134. Light reflex is carried through( Ciliary nerve, V, VII, )

135. Anterior Uveitis is MC assd with - HLA B 27

136. Scleritis MC assd with – RA

137. Interstitial keratitis MC seen in – Syphilis

138. MCC of Vitreous H-gge (Eale’s dse, DM , HTN)

139. Tractional RD is seen in (Vitreous loss after Surgery , DM retinopathy,_)

140. White pupillary reflex is called – Leucocoria

141. Dx test for corneal ulcer ( Flur.angiography, Alcian blue, Rose Bengal, methylene blue)

142. In DIRECT ophthalmoscopy image is magnified by ( 15, 5,10, 20 times)

143. Sup oblique muscle is supplied by - IV nerve

144. MCC of cataract blindness- (Senile, congenital, traumatic)

145. Max cones are seen in ( fovea centralis, macula lutea, blind spot)



ENT



146. Ext ear is not supplied by( GP nerve, Vagus, Great auricular nerve, Lesser occipital nerve)

147. Tonsills innervated by ( GP, Vagus, Abduscens)

148. Schwart’s sign is seen in – OTOSCLEROSIS

149. Pure tone is ( single frequency, multiple F, mixed F, F above 4000 Hz)

150. In BERA the IVth potential is from ( Cochlear ganglion, inf colliculus, MGB)

151. Bullous myringitis is seen in ( Measles, mumps,Herpez,Mycoplasma)

152. About Rhinoscleroma false is ( Cause subglottic stenosis, caused by Gm+, streptomycin useful in Rx, Mikkuliz cells & Russel bodies seen)

153. Le-Forte’s # is the # of - MAXILLA









ANAESTHESIOLOGY


154. Pin index of oxygen(5,15,25,35)

155. Laughing gas is – Nitrous oxide

156. Used for iv induction except (Bupivacaine, Thiopental Na, Ketamine, Etomidate)



Dermatology



157. Latest retinoid drug used in PSORIASIS - Adapalane

158. Isomorphism not seen in (Lichen sclerosis, Lichen planus, Vitiligo, PSORIASIS )

159. Alopecia,hyperpigmentation ,hypogonadism charecteristc for deficiency of --Zn

160. Decreased no of melanocytes seen in(Pebaldism, albinism, )



Radiology



161. Element MC used in brachytherapy of Ca Cervix- CESIUM

162. Filament in X-Ray made of- Strontium

163. Most radiosensitive organ- Bone marrow

164. Double Bubble sign in Barium meal seen in – Deodenal Atresia

165. Best method to Dx Pathology in terminal part of CBD. (USG, ERCP, PTC, CEST)

166. Investigation of choice in a person brought with traumatic paraplegia( MRI, CT, Myelography)

Psychiatry



167. DOC in OCD( Sertraline, alprazolam, chlorpromazine)



orthopaedics



168. Hill-Sachs lesion seen in – Reccurent dislocation of shoulder

169. Nerve damaged in # of shaft of humerous- Radial nerve

170. Bony ankylosis is caused by ( Septic arthritis, TB arthritis, Bechet’s dse, Psoriatic arthritis)

171. MCP joints are MC affected in – RA

172. 1st epiphysis to be ossified in elbow( Head of radius, Capitulum, Trochlea, Med condyle)



Paediatrics



173. MCC of death in TOF (bronchopneumonia, starvation, malabsorption)

174. Boy c/o haemetemesis, mild splenomegaly,no hepatomegaly.Dx ( Non cirrhotic fibrosis, chirrosis, Budd-Chiari sy)

175. Minimal fluid intake in an 8 kg boy should be ( 800, 700 ml, 1L)

176. Enuresis is normal until(5, 4, 3 1/2, 2 1/2 years)

177. Normal duration of physiologicl jaundice in a trm baby- 1 week

178. Charecteristic for achild with acute post strepto coccal GN- raised ASO& fever& Leucocytosis

Medicine



179. Nephrocalcinosis seen in –Hyper PTH

180. 45 year man c\o vomiting with food mass taken days before,foul smelling breath, occasional dysphagia to solid food. Dx(Zenkers diverticulum, Achalasia, diabetic gastroparesis, scleroderma)

181. Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by (diastolic murmur duration, mid DMD, opening snap, intensity of S1)

182. Severity of DM assessed by (HbA1C, KB level, RBS)



183. Typhoid ulcer perforation in – 3rd week

184. Normal anion gap acidosis seen in (cholera, DKA, Lactic acidosis)

185. pH=7.28,PCO2=70,HCO3=36 Dx (resp acidosis with metabolic alkalosis, resp acidosis with metb acidosis)

186. In thalassemia trait(increased HbF & HbA2, increased HbF & decreased HbA2)

187. Tetany is not seen in (Verapamil, thyroid Surgery , hyperventilation, malabsorption)

188. Down’s Sy is Dx by all except(decreased hcg, increased hcg, decreased AFP)

189. 100% O2 not effective in (TOF, DILD, Eosinophilic pneumonia)

190. Prophylaxis to a child with RHD should be given minimum till(at least 5 years after onset, life long, till 17 years)

191. Carotid massage is effective in- PSVT

192. Lung Ca MC assd with(Asbestosis, Silicosis)

193. Not premalignant(Crohn’s dse, UC, Leukoplakia, Retinitis pigmentosa)

194. Complications of DU except(Malignancy, perforation, bleed, obstruction)

195. Not a cutaneous manifestation of TB( LUPUS pernio, LUPUS vulgaris, Erythema nodosum)

196. MI in aetiology of CAD- LDL

197. MCC of ICH- (HTN, Berry aneurysm)

198. Hemodialysis is not effective in( Digoxin , salicylate, methanol, barbiturate poisoning)

199. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia seen in – (HUS, HTN, DM , All)

200. Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV min for( 6 weeks, 4 weeks, 12 weeks, 8 weeks)

201. Vomiting,diarrhea 6 hours after food intake- Staphylococci

202. Patient c/o finger stiffness, dysphagia.Dx- Scleroderma

203. Hepatorenal syndrome charc by all except( normal intrinsic kidney , low or no proteinuria;_)

204. Best marker to assess prognosis after colon Surgery for Ca( CEA, Ca199, Ca125)

205. Rx of steroid dependant asthma(long acting B2 agonist, leucotrine antagonist, theophylline, systemic steroid)

206. Pretibial myxedema is seen in ( Thyrotoxicosis, myxedema, follicular Ca , Pappilary Ca thyroid)

207. Zn def not see n in ( Burns, TB, Renal tubular dse, malabsorption)

208. True about Pan coast Tr except(lower lobe Ca, MC adeno Ca)

209. Charecteristic of MCTD are all of the following (?except) (CNS involvement, GN, Polyarthritis, Hypocomplimentemia )

210. MC CNS involvement in HIV- Dementia

211. a –wave in JVP indicates – Atrial systole

212. Wide split fixed 2nd sound seen in – ASD

213. Anti mitochondrial Ab seen typically in – PBC

214. brain death is loss of(brain stem Fx, cortical Fx, spinal refex, corneal reflex)

215. H-gge into R internal capsule of aR handed person causes(Aphasia, R hom hemianopia, hemianopsia)

216. Spirochets can be identified by all of the follwg(?except) ( Dark field microscopy, Levaditi stain, Fontana stain, Gram stain)

217. Dressler’s syn due to- auto immune

218. Pinpoint pupil seen in all except(Imipramine, Chlorpromazine, _, None)

219. Pt with jaundice and ARF. MI in history except( TCA Rx,

sewage worker, Paracetamol poisoning, Drug abuse)

220. 45 year man c/o back pain & joint pain. In X-Ray B/L Sacroileitis. Dx. (Ankyl spondylosis, Psoriatic arthritis, RA)

221. Not a cause of Cor pulmonale( Mitral stenosis, intermittent PE, COPD, Kyphoscoliosis)

222. FAMILIAL bullous dse is equivalent to(Halvey halvey syn, Darrier’s dse, Bullous pemphigus)

223. MCC of hypovolemic shock- (H-gge, Gm-ve shock)

224. Flapping TREMOR is seen in all except( Thyrotoxicosis, Uraemia, CO2 narkosis, Hepatic failure)

225. In hemolytic anemia true except( increased haptoglobulin, BM hyperplasia, Reticulocytosis, increased unconj bilirubin)

226. Morphine is given in – LVF

227. MCA territory H-gge, not seen is( Aphasia, dysarthria, hemiparesis)

228. MI factor determining myocardial O2 consumption ( heart rate, blood volume, cardiac output, myocardial fibre tension)

229. Hypotonia seen in all except( anxiety, sleep, shock)



Surgery



230. Tinel’s sign is seen in (nerve regeneration, degeneration, both, none)

231. Thrombophlebitis seen in ( Buerger’s dse, Reynauld’s dse, AV fistula)

232. GERD is predisposed by( Smoking, Achalasia, Trunkal vagectomy, All)

233. Not premalignant( Condyloma lata, Bowen’s dse, Balanopostitis)

234. Uvula vesicae is caused by(ant lobe, post lobe, medial lobe of Prostate)

235. In Carpel tunnel syndrome,the nerve involved is – Median Nerve

236. MCC of hepatic abscess in India( amoebic absess, infected haematoma, ascending infection, secondary to cholelithiasis)

237. Multiple lytic lesions in all bones of a child of 14 years. Dx( Histiocytosis X, Neuroblastoma, Osteosarcoma, 2ory from Wilm’s Tr)

238. Dumbing syn is charec by all except(Hyperglycemia, numbness & giddiness)

239. Not a complication of Crohn”s dse( Sclerosing cholangitis, granuloma, fistula, stricture)

240. Hirshprung’s Dse MC involves (recto sigmoidal jn, Rectum, colon )

241. Hirshprung’s Dse Dx by – Rectal Biopsy

242. Thimble bladder is seen in - TB

243. Mass 15 cm away from anal orifice .Rx( Colonoscopic removal, hartman’s operation, ant resection, abd-peroneal resection)

244. Sister Joseph Nodules are seen at – Umbilicus

245. Spigelian hernia is- hernia of arcuate line

246. Pott’s puffy Tr is - OSTEOMYELITIS of skull bone

247. Grey Turner sign in – Acute pancreatitis

248. Acute pancreatitis cause all except(induce fat necrosis, hypercalcemia, increased amylase)

249. Amylase is increased in all except( A/c appendicitis, A/c pancreatitis, duodenal perforation, intestinal obstrn)

250. Rx of paralytic ileus include all except(Parasympathomimetics, NG aspiration, IVF, Electrolyte correction)

251. Painful tender & non reducable sac through inguinal canal with absent cough reflex.Dx- Strangulation

252. MC organ ruptured in blunt trauma of abdomen- spleen

253. Bornhalm’s sign seen in – AV fistula

254. Dse with least flow(Intravisceral fistula, visceral hemangioma, portal vein shunt)

255. Stones are MC seen in which salivary gland- sub mandibular

256. Major amount of unstimulated salivary secretion by(Parotids,submandibular, sublingual, small lingual glands)

257. MC mode of spread to cervical LN in TB( Haematogenous, lymphogenic, contact)

258. MC mode of spread of Gall Bladder Ca- (Transcoelomic, lymphogenic, hematogenic, Direct extension)

259. Chronic cholecystitis is assd with all except( usually palpable, MC in women, Assd wiyh GB stones, Rokitansky cells)

260. MC type of Basal cell Ca- Nodular

261. LN involved in Breast Ca except( Pre tracheal, ant axillary, parasternal, supraclavicular)

262. Sted collar abscess seen in (TB, Syphilis, Actinomycoses)

263. Which cannot be considered as a solitary noduleof thyroid(adenoma, carcinoma, physiological goiter, cyst)

264. In neck dissection above omohyoid we are removing(I,II,III level LN)





Gynaecology



265. Scaly lesions with frequent bleed around areola. Dx ( Paget’s dse, Ezcema, TB)

266. Epithelium in vagina is – squamous

267. Colposcopy used to visualize- Cervix

268. MC site of ectopic pregnancy,-(ampulla, isthmus, interstitium)

269. 43 year lady c/o prolonged and heavy bleed.O/E hyperplasia with no atypia. Rx(Estrogen, Estrogen+ progestogen, Progestron, Hysterectomy)

270. In a patient soon after 3rd stage of labour placenta fully came out, but heavy bleed. Tactics; (Massage & oxytocin, IVF, Check for placenta in uterus, check for laceration of labia)

271. Painless heavy bleed seen in ( Placenta previa, )

272. Hydramnios is complicated by all except( Atonic H-ge, obstructed labour, uterine dysfunction, Placenta abruptio)

273. Bacterial vaginosis causes(Pre term labour, abruption placenta, endometritis, Chorioamnionitis)

274. Gold standard in Dx of PID( USG, Laparoscopy, Blood leucocyte count, Anti chlamydial Ab)

275. LH:FSH ratio increased in – PCOD

276. Ovulation coincides with – LH surge

277. Exact no of weeks between LMP & EDD- (38, 39, 40 weeks)

278. Bishop’s classification is used for-_

279. Pregnant lady presnts with fulminant hepatitis. MCC( Hep A, B,C, D)

280. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral are all except(H-ge, Healing, pain, extension)

281. Active tactics in labour according to –PARTOGRAM

282. Investigations to be done in a girl presented with delayed puberty( USG pelvis, FSH, Karyotyping, All)

283. Best prognostic factor in breast Ca( LN involvement, age, FAMILIAL history)

284. MC presentation( LOA, ROA, LOP, ROP)





285. Appropriate investigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux- MCU

286. Not a complication of Pseudo pancreatic cyst(H-ge into cyst, Rupture, Malignancy)

287. Pheno cause HEMOLYSIS in all of the follwg except (G6PD def, TB, Alcoholism)

288. External ear infections are MC caused by (Pseudomonas, fungi, virus, actinomyces)

289. Major site of storage of labile proteins ( liver , skel muscle, endocrine glands, exocrine glands)

290. Virus causing Rabies in man is( Street virus, wild virus,--)

fmge september 2005

QUESTIONS SEPTEMBER 2005(part 1&2)
(the answers marked with question mark are not appropriate. if anyone gets the correct answer, please do the proper corrections)
1,Hydatid cyst is commonly found in
1, liver
2, lungs
3, kidney
(ans:liver )
2, Most common site of abscess formation due to Amoeba
1, liver
2, Lungs
3, kidney
(ans:liver )
3, Umblical cord has (repeated question in all previous papers)
1,2artery n 1 vein
2,2 vein n 1 art.
(Ans:2 artery n 1 vein)
4, Apoptosis
Programmed internal suicidal cell death
5, wheal and flare reaction is
1, Type 1 hyper sensitivity
2, Type 2 hyper sensitivity
3, Type 3 hyper sensitivity
4, Type 4 hyper sensitivity
(ans:Type 1 hyper sensitivity. All the anaphylactic reactions comes under type 1 hyper sensitivity)
6, Hypoglossal nerve is
1,6th nerve
2,7th nerve
3,12th nerve
4,9th nerve
(Ans:12th nerve)
7, Muscle in the inguinal canal is
1, Internal oblique
2, External oblique
3, Transverse
(ans:???transverse)
8, Total claw hand
1, ulnar and median nerve
2, ulnar nerve
3, median nerve
(ans:?ulnar and median nerve)
9,In Hansen’s disease the nerve affected is:
1, ulnar nerve
2, median nerve
3, radial nerve
(ans:ulnar nerve.Hansans disease is the other name for leprosy. the most common nerve affected in leprosy is ulna nerve.
Ref.Bailey and love. Pg37-41)
10, Complication of extra capsular FRACTURE of femur:
1, Non union
2, mal union
(ans:Non union Ref.SARP Surgery and orthopaedics pg.89)
11,eye ball moments controlled by all, EXCEPT:
1, optic nerve
2, abducens nerve
3, Trochlear nerve
4, oculomotor nerve
(ans:optic nerve.( Abducens 6th nerve moves the eye laterally,Trochlear nerve helps in moving the eye down and in,Oculomotor 3rd nerve helps for outward lateral gaze)
12, Lacrimal duct passes through, except:
1, Frontal
2, maxillary
3, zygomaticus
4, lacrimal
13, Right common carotid artery arises from:
1,Right axillary
2, Arcus aorta
3, Brachiocephalicus
(ans:Brachiocephalicus)
14, The first heart sound S1 is due to the:
1, AV closure
2, opening of aortic valve
3, closing of aortic valve
(ans:AV closure)
15, Rheumatic fever is associated with:
1, Mitral valve
2,Pulmonary valve
3,Tricuspid valve
4, Aortic valve
(ans:Mitral valve)
?15, Hernia Morgani passes through:
1,pleuro peritoneum
2,diaphragm
16, Gland of Burner is found in (Rpt in march 2005)
()ANS:Deudenum)
17, Length of Duodenum:
1,15
2,20
3,25
(ans:20-25cm, Ref. SARP BAP(biochem,Anatomy ,Physiology ) pg 77)
18, Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of the colon:
1, Transverse colon
2, Terminal colon
3, Jejunal colon
19, Unilateral breast findings with scaly SKIN around the nipple with intermittent bleeding (Rpt. In march 2005)
1, Pagets disease
2, Eczema
3,CA breast
(ans:Pagets disease)
20Simple Mastectomy includes:
1,Breast and axillary nodes
2,only breast
3, Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle
(ans:Only Breast, Simple Mastectomy- this means complete removal of the breast but the axilla is left undisturbed except for the region of the axillary tail which usually has attached to it a few nodes low in the anterior group. Ref.Bailey and love(20th edition) pg.733)
21, Continous Murmur is found in which arterial disease:
1,AV Fistula
2,Disecting aortic aneurysm
(ans: AV Fistula. Continuous machinery murmur is also found in Patent Ductus arteriosus PDA)
??22, which ion helps is potential:
1,Na+
2,K+
23,All of the following found in Horner’s syndrome, EXCEPT:
1,Ptosis
2,Meiosis
3, Hyperhydrosis
(ans:Hyperhydrosis, In Horners syndrome, unilateral Anhidrosis(ie,loss of sweating) is found)
24,Peau d’ Orange of Breast is due to:
1,Obstruction if lymph
2,Obstruction of ducts
3,Obstruction of arteries
4,Obstruction of Vein
(ans:Obstruction of Lymphatic vessels, Ref.Robbins Basic Pathology ,pg.354)
25,Reabsorption of Water is maximum in :
1,proximal tubules
2,Henles loop
3,collecting duct
(ans:Proximal tubules)
26,Carcinoid syndrome, ass. With except,
1,Diarhoea
2,Flushing
3,Acute appendicitis
4,cyanosis
(ans:?cyanosis)
27,Acute Pancreatitis associated with:
1,Alcoholic
2,Gall bladder stones
3,Elevated serum amalyse
4,All of the above
(ans:?all of the above)
28,Diagnosis of CA colon ,best indicated by:
1,colonoscopy
2,CT
3,Barium enema
4,x-ray
(ans:colonoscopy)
29,Radiation is less in:
1,CT
2,MRI
3,Fluroscopy
4,X-ray
(ans:MRI)
30,CA colon Marker:
(ans:CEA)
31,AFP(alpha feta protein ) is increased in:
1,Hepatic carcinoma
2,Renal carcinoma
(ans:Hepatic carcinoma)
??32,Ananencephaly is better diagnosed in which trimester:
1,1st trimester
2,2-3 trimester
33,Which of the following nerve is damaged by the FRACTURE of the shaft of the humerus:
1,Radial nerve
2,ulnar nerve
3,median nerve
(ans:Radial nerve)
??34,Inversion and Eversion is done by?
35,Supination is done by:
(ans:Radio ulnar joint)
36,FRACTURE of supracondylar of the femur affects which nerve:
1,sciatic nerve
2,poplitial nerve
37,Vein used in bypass Surgery :
1,Long saphenus vein
2,short saphenus vein
(ans:long saphenus vein)
?38,pulseless
(ans:Methionine)
39,Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA:
1,adenosine
2,Uracil
(ans:uracil)
40,Production of Uric acid is by:
1,Nucleic acid
2,Protein
(ans:??nucleic acid)
41,Hexose is not seen in:
1,Pentose
2,Glucose
3,Fructose
(ans:Pentose-5 ,and hexose is 8 )
42,Common complication of long bone FRACTURE :
1,Fat embolism
2,Pulmonary embolism
(ans:Fat embolism.It is the commenest complication of long bone fractures like, femur FRACTURE )
43,Definitive management for Tension pneumothorax is:
(ans:Thoracosynthesis)
44,Normal Fluid level in pericardium
1,100-150
2,50-100
3,150-200
45,polyhydroaminosis is increase in aminoitic fluid more than:
1,1000ml
2,2000ml
3,3000ml
46,HIV is associated with
1,Disseminated TB
2,Oesophageal candidiasis
3,MAI
4,all of the above
(ans:?all of the above)
47,Radiological findings of Ewings sarcoma(Rpt)
(ans:Onion Peel appearance)
48,Osteosarcoma affects:
1,Metaphysis
2,Diaphysis
3,Epiphysis
(ans:Metaphysis,Ref:SARP-Surgery and orthopaedics ,pg 51)
49& 50,,Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:
(ans:Clostridium Difficle)
51,Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever:
1,WIDAL test
2,VDRL
(ans:WIDAL.Enteric fever is the other name for Typoid fever, and the the diagnostic tests include, (mneumonic:BASU,ie, 1st week,B-blood culture,2nd week,A-agglutination test which is called as WIDAL,3rd week S-Stool culture and 4th week,U-Urine culture)
52,Complement Fixation test is:
1,Coombs test
2,Waserman reaction
3,VDRL
4,WIDAL
53,Iron Deficiency anemia is commonly caused by (Rpt)
(ans:Hook worm )
54,Which is a pre-toxin:
1,E.coli
2,Cholera
3,SALMONELLA
4,Staph.aureus
55,Trauma to spleen is best diagnosed by:
1,USG
2,CT
(ans:?USG)
56,Post splenectomy causes:
1,Thrombocytosis
2,Thrombocytopenia
3,Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
57,Radial nerve
1,c5,c6
2,C5,C6,T1
(ans:C5,C6.T1)
58,ST elevation is seen in:
1,Acute MI
2,Pericarditis
3,Prinze metals angina
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
59,cholera vaccination is effective:
1,6 months
2,3 months
60,Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as:
1,0,1,6months
2,0,1,6 days
(ans:0,1,6 months)
61,BCG should be given:
(ans:Immediately after birth)
62,Cellular fragments od Rabies vaccine is given at:
1,Anterior Abdomen
2,Deltoid muscle
3,Medial part of thigh
63,BCG is diluted with:
1,NS
2,Distilled water
64,Vitamin A should be given at:
(ans:6-9months)
65,Cancroid is caused by:
(ans:H.Ducrei)
66,Swan Gann Catheter is used to measure:
(ans:PCWP-pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
67,CVP denotes,pressure of:
1,Right atrium
2,Rt.Ventricle
3,Left atrium
4,Lt.Ventricle
(ans:Rt.atrium,?as the vena cava(sup. N inf.) ends in Right atrium, central venous pressure helps in determing the venous filling)
68,Tricuspid Incompetence:
1,a wave
2,Hepatic pulsation
(ans:hepatic pulsation, pulsatile liver is a feature in Tricuspid regurgitation)
69,In a patient with Diabetic nephropathy , the anti hypertensive commonly used is:
1,ACE inhibitors
2,Ca channel blockers
3,B-blockers
(ans:ACE inhibitors)
70,Microaneurysm is the most common complication of:
1,Diabetic Mellitus
2,Hypertension
(ans:Diabetic Mellitus)
71,Most common cause of blindness in India is:(Rpt. In March 2005)
(ans:Cataract)
72,Vitreous Hemorrage in Young patients is most commonly due to:
1,Diabetics mellitus
2,Retinal Detachment
3,Eales disease
(ans??Eales disease)
73,The lens used in astigmatism:
1,concave lens
2,convex lens
3,cylindrical lens
(ans:cylindrical lens)
74,seminoma is ca of:
(ans:testes)
75,Post.staphyloma:
1,myopia
2,hypermetropia
76,constriction of pupils:
1,only light reflex
2,light reflex and accommodation
3,refraction
(ans:??light reflex and accommodation)
77,??keratoconus
78,Inhaled forgeign body is seen in the:
1,Right apex
2,Right lower lobe
3,Left apex
4,Left lower lobe
(ans:?Right lower lobe)
79,Community acquired pneumonia:
1,pneumococci
2,streptococci
3,H.influenza
80,Placenta Praveica:
1,Painfull bleeding
2,severe abdominal pain
3,painless bleeding
4,all of the above
(ans:painless bleeding, only Placenta Abruptia has painfull abdominal pain with bleeding)
81,A pregnant lady in her first trimester,complaints with bleeding, on examination the OS is closed:
1,Inevitable abortion
2,Threatend abortion
(ans:Threatened abortion,since the OS is closed it should be threatened abortion, is the os is opned, it can be inevitable abortion)
82,A primigravida with hypertension, when should we induce labour:
1,35 week
2,37 week
3,40 week
4,39 week
(ans:?37 week)
83,Anti-D Rh is given for:
(Rh positive father, and Rh neg. mother)
84,for a lady in her pregnancy, to prevent Tetanus, who should be immunized:
1,Tetanus toxid to the mother
2,Tetanus toxid to the infant
3,immunoglobin to the mother
(ans:TT to the mother)
85,Treatment for ectopic pregnancy:
1,salpihigotomy
2,observation
3,D&C
86,Misoprostol is given, except
1,Missed abortion
2,To induce labour
3,menorrhagia
4,postpartum hemorrhage

87,custodial rape is judged in
1,Judicial magistrate
2,district magistrate
(ans:judicial magistrate)
88,Anti-hypertensive contratindicated in pregnancy :
1,Hydralazine
2,Methyldopa
3,Enalapril
4,Amylodopine
(ans:?enalapril)
89,which is a pro-drug:
1,enalapril
2,clonidine
(ans:?enalapril)
90,pharmocodynamics deals with:
1,Mechanism of action
2,Excretion
91,Theurapatic index:
1,efficacy
92,Le fort FRACTURE (Rpt in march 2005):
1,Maxilla
2,Mandible
(ans:Maxilla)
93,Metabolic acidosis is seen in:
(ans:Diabetic ketaacidosis,(Mneumonics:LUKD,Lactic acidosis,Uremia-renal failure,Ketoacidosis,Drugs like acetozolemide,phenformin etc,..in all these conditions, metabolic ketacidosis is seen)
94,Breast feeding is contraindicated in:
1,Mastitis
2,HIV carrier
3,Open TB
95,Condoms are more preferred because, they have:
1,Reduced side effects
2,reduced failure rates
(ans:reduced side effects)
96,Natural method of contraception::
1,Rhythm method
2,coitus interruption
3,breast feeding
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
97,Infant Mortality rate is:
(ans:1000 live births)
98,Maternal mortility rate calculated as::
1,42 days after delivery
2,immediately after delivery
(ans:??42 days after delivery)
99,Total fertility rate is:
1,reproductive age of the female at 15-44
100,Eligible couple (rep. march 2005)
Recently married couple where the female is of fertile age
101,Not a grevious injury:
1,contusion of breast
2,multiple scars of face
3,FRACTURE of femur
(ans:contusion of breast)
102,Drug indicated for hyperthyroidism during pregnancy:
1,prophyltiouracil
2,carbamazipine
(ans:propylthiuracil)
103,No. of parathyroid glands:
1,4
2,6
3,2
(ans:4)
104,Features of Graves disease,except:
1,most common in male
2,TREMOR
3,pretibial myxodema
(ans:most common in males, graves disease is most commonly found among females, TREMOR , pretibial myxodema are characteristic features of graves disease)
108,Hypercholestremia is commonly associated with:
1,hypothyroidism
2,diabeticsmelitus
109,All are features of hypothyroidism except,
1,lid retraction
2,myxedema
3,bradycardia
4,dry SKIN
(ans:lid retraction, it is seen in hyperthyroidism ,ie, as exopthalmus, when the patient has exophthalmus, there is lid retraction. Rest are features of hypothyroidism)
110,Virchos triad is seen in:
1,DVT
2,Hyper coagulity
3,Abdominal visceral malignancy
111,glasscow scale in death is:
1,0
2,3
3,5
(ans:3, patient is declared death when the GCS is 3)
112,panic attack is:
1,Acute anxiety
2,chronic anxiety
113,sucidal tendency is assoiciated with:
1,depression
2,schizophrenia
3,impulsive disorder
4,all of the above
(ans:?depression or ? all of the above)
114,short acting drug(or? Bezodiazephams)
1,diazepham
2,lorezepham
3,midasolam
(ans:?diazepham or ?midazolam. both are short acting drugs, if benzodiazepham is mentioned then diazepham will be more opt. lorezepham is a long acting benzodiazepham)
115,short acting anesthetic agent used for induction:
1,thiopental
2,ketamine
3,propofol
(ans:?propofol)
121,Hypnotic drug action is:
1,rapid elimination and slow distribution
2,slow elimination and rapid distribution
122,H+ ion is eliminated by
1,lungs
2,stomach
3,kidney
(ans: ?kidney )
123,First pass metabolism:
1,oral
2,sub cutaneus
3,sub lingual
4,rectal
(ans:??sublingual)
124,lassik content
1,xenon
2,excimer
3,yog

(ans:?excimer)
125,A 40 yr old male,has a rash over the groin, with a scaly lesion on examination:
1,candidiasis
2,Malazi furfur
3,Trichophyton

126,Most common nosocomial fungal infection:
1,candidiasis
2,aspergillosis
127,superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from except:
1,testis
2,uterus
128,EBV(ebstein barr virus) except:
1,pancreas
2,burkitts lymphoma
3,glandular fever
(ans:?pancreas)
129,antiaggrent:
(ans:asprin)
130,anticoagulant is given in all conditions except:
1,pericarditis
2,DVT
3,pulmonary embolism
(ans:pericarditis)
131,OCP(oral contraceptive pills) is contraindicated in
(ans:hepatic failure)
132,Primary colours except:
1,green
2,red
3,white
(ans:white)
133,in colour blindness
(ans:?defect in 1 or more prime colours)
134,jovel bodies seen in
?
135,Most commin utero-vesicle fistula in India:
1,obstructed labour
2,pelvic Surgery
(ans:obstructed Surgery )
136,Treatment for zollinger elison syndrome:
1,omeprezole
2,cimitedine
(ans:omeprezol, proton inhibitors are best indicated )
137,2nd stage of labour:
1,increase in contraction
2,cervix dilatation
3,all of the above
(ans:?all of the above)
138,Heamolysis:
1,vit.E
2,vit.K
(ans:vit.E)
139,Free radicals:
(ans:vit.E, vit.E,A,C are anti-oxidants.)
140,Meckels diverticulitis is ass. With:
1,increased bleeding
2,ass/ diverticulitis
141,pharyngeal pouch?
142,Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed by (Rpt in march 2005)
(ans:MCU(micturating cysto urethrogram)
143,Heamocolpus is :
(ans:imperforate hymen)
144,Height doubles at:
(ans:4 years)
145,vitamin D deficiency is:
(ans:Rickets)
146,Enteric fever is caused by:
(ans: S.thyphi)
147,Tubercular focus at apex:
1,gommus
2,simsands
148,Nutritional essential in a child noted as
1,weight for age
2,height for age
3,arm circumference
149,Tyrosin becomes essential in
1,phenylketonuria
2,thyrosinosis
150, ,In intermittent porphyria what is the urine content:
1,uroporphyrin
2,porphobilinogens
(ans:porphobilinogens,Ref:Oxford handbook of Medicine ,pg 708
151,Essential amino acids are named so:
Because they are not produced in the body
152,Enzymes are:
1,protein
2,Lipid
(ans:protein)
153,Poluunsaturated fatty acids,Except:
1,olieic acid
2,arachinic acid
154,All are bad cholesterol except:
1,HDL
2,LDL
155,MI enzymes are:
1,Tropin
2,Myoglobulin
3,LDH
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
156,UTI contains microbes:
1,>10^6
>10^10
157,Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk:
(ans:IgA)
158,IgM denotes:
(ans:primary reaction)
159,Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis:
1,CT
2,USG
3,Xray
(ans:??CT)
160,What is the major side effect of streptomycin:
(ans:Ototoxicity)
161,which is of Obstructed COPD:
1,Bronchial asthma
2,Chronic bronchitis
3,bronchoectasis
4,all of the above
162.apoprotein of cholesterol:
1,apoE
2,apo A1
3,apoA2
163,Pancreatic calcification is due to:
1,alcoholism
2,Cystic fibrosis
3,idiopathic
4,heriditory
164,cholesterol is:
1,b-caratone
165,Breast milk ejection is due to:
1,oxytoxin
2,prolactin
(ans:oxytoxin,pralactin helps in secretion of milk)
166,Weight of a child triples at:
(ans:1 year)
167,recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies except:
1,cricothyroid
168,Not a solitary nodule:
1,cyst
2,adenoma
169,Cryptococcus
1,pigeon droppings
170,endemic dropsy:
1,sanginosus
171 ,in Malaria falciparum:
1,ring shaped cresents seen
172,potassium sparing drug:
1,spironolactone
2,furesemide
(ans:spironolactone,all other diuretics causes hypokalemia when given,spironolactone spares pottasium)
173,carbohydrates,proteins and fat metabolism occurs in which cycle:
1,krebs cycle
2,coherts cycle
174,pulse biferns occurs in:
1,AR
2,AS n AR
3,HOCM
4,all of the above
(ans:?all of the above)
175,Obstructive jaundice is due to:
(ans:gall stones)
176,Difference between human milk and cows milk:
1,iron deficiency
177,Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is due to:
(ans:uterine atony)
178,in SHOCK:
1,hypotension
2,hypoperfusion to tissues
3,hypoxia
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
?179,hepatitis E
180,what is the lung findings in HIV:
1,disseminated TB
2,LUPUS vulgaris
(ans:disseminated TB)
181,Pneumoperitonium is seen in:
1,PA erect view
2,abdominal xray
182,Wilson disease is due to :
(ans:copper)
183,which is a mast cell stabilizer:
(ans:sodium chromoglycate)
184,drinking water test is done in:
1,acute congestive glaucoma
2,acute glaucoma
3,chronic glaucoma
185,osmolity
1,serum potassium
2,serum sodium
(ans?:serum sodium)
186,plaque is caused by
1,flea
2,tics
3,mites
(ans:?flea)
187,HONK (hyper osmality non ketoacidosis) occurs in:
(ans:Diabetes mellitus)
188,Mid day meals:
1/3 calories +1/2 protein
189,heamorrage leads to:
(ans:hypovolemic shock)
190,Most common stranglulation occurs in:
(ans:femoral hernia)
191,cough impulse is not seen in:
(ans:strangulation)
192,Acute appendicitis:
1,fever >42
2,anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever
(ans: anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever)
?193,active potential:
K+
194,Least conduction fibres:
1,C- fibres
195,Reticulocytes are found in:
(ans:hemolytic anemia,when HEMOLYSIS occurs, much of immature reticulocytes are produced in bone marrow,Ref.check kapithans ped. Book)
196,Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock:
1,adrenalin
2,steroids
3,antibiotics
4,antihistamine
(ans:antibiotics)
197,Ovulation occurs:
1,14 days prior to next menstruation
2,14 days after menstruation
3,on 14th day
(ans:14 days prior to next menstruation:)
198,Complication in Diabetics mellitus occurs after :
1,6 years
2,8 years
3,12 years
199,glove and stockings sensory loss occurs in:
1,syringomelia
2,pheripheral neuropathy
3,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
200,causative of sore throat:
1,Strep.pyogens
2,staphylococcus
(ans:strep. Pyogens, it is the causative for infective endocarditis)
?201,sup. Thyroid occurs frm:
1,4th branchial arch
202,DNA:
1,deoxyribose sugar
203,Mycobacterium grows in:
1,LG medium
204,Effective sterilization:
1,steam under pressure
2,hot water
205,?pasturation of milk determined by:
??methylene blue
206,Sharp instrument should be disposed in:
1,red bag
2,blue bag
(ans:?red bag)
207,term vaccine was named by:
1,Louis Pasteur
2,Jenner
208,Absence of sperms:
1,oligospermia
2,Azzospermia
(ans:azzospermia)
209,Duputryens contracture affects:
1,little finger
2,ring finger
3,middle finger
(ans:little finger)
210,GB (gullian barr syndrome) characteristic:
(ans:loss of limb reflex)
211,Co2 is carried in the plasma in the form of :
1,bicarbonate
2,carbonic acid
(ans:?bicarbonate)
212,glucose in ORS is used:
(ans:for the absorption of Na+)
213,disease caused by cotton:
(ans:bysinosis)
214,aniline dyes causes:
1,bladder Ca
2,renal ca
3,hepatic ca
(ans:bladder ca)
215,non alcoholic hepatitis,except:
1,Mallory hyaline fibrosis
2,steatis
216,COPD –all except,
1,RVF(right vent. Failure)
2,polycythemia
3,LVF(left vent. Failure)
(ans:?LVF)
217,Most common feature of essential hypertension:
1,headache
2,visual fortification
(ans:headache)
218,LVH is caused by:
(ans:essential hypertension, hypertension causes left vent. Strain)
219,Vagina is lined by:
1,Squamous cell epithelium
2,columnar cells
(ans:squamous cell)
220,Nitrates indicates:
(ans:,recent pollution)
221,first line prevention of epidemics:
1,confirmation of diagnosis
2,isolation
3,mass immunization
222,pin point pupils are seen in, except
1,datura
2,opiods
3,organophosphates
4,cerebello pontine hemarroge
(ans:datura(ectasy)
223,glomular filtration rate increases in:
1,hypertension
2,bowmen capsules pressure
3,increased osmotic pressure
224,hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by:
(ans:cyclophosphamide)
225,allopurinol:
1,inhibits the synthesis of uric acid
226,Gerotas fasia covering:
1,kidney
2,femur
227,gentamycin is not given orally because
228,which drug effects both bacterial and anerobic infections:
1,sparfloxcillin
2,pefloxacillin
3,norfloxacillin
4,ciprofloxcillin
229,Dark ground microscopy:
1,refracted light
2,polarized light
230,retained placenta causes
1,prolonged bleeding
2,sepsis
3,placental polyp
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
231,exercise to increase the muscle strength:
1,isotonic
2,isometric
3,aerobic isotonic
232,Southern blot test:
1,DNA
2,RNA
3,PCR
(ans:DNA, northern blot test is for RNA, Western blot for HIV)
233,niacin is synthesized
1,tryptophan
234,Iron storage is:
1,transferring
234,In vitro fertilization:
1,artifical insemination
235,spinal cord ends at:
1,L2
2,S1
3,L1
4,S2
(ans:L2)
236,estrogen deficiency leads to:
1,osteoporosis
2,dysmenorrhea
(ans:osteoporosis, most of the post menopausal women get osteoporosis, because of estrogen def.)
237,curlings ulcer:
1,deudonal ulcers in burns
238,humoral cells are
1,B cells
2,NK cells
3,T cells
239,in leprosy
1,SKIN histocytes
2,swann cells
3,all of the above
240,bile secretion stimulation all, except:
1,vagus
?241,semicircular canal
242,cardiac output is determined by, except
1,stroke volume
2,cardiac contractility
3,cardiac rate
4,body surface area
(ans?:body surface area)
243,vessels to meninges:
1,external carotid
2,internal carotid
3,vertrebral
4,basilar
244,Artery supplied to sup. Temporal brain :
1,middle cerebral art.
245,epiphyseal plate FRACTURE is classified by
1,harris
246,?directly acting drugs except:
?dopamin
247,pharmocodynamics and pharmacokinetics:
1,nitrates
2,amiodarone
3,verapamil
4,hydralazine
248,maternal mortality
? 1 lakh
249,pneumatocoel is caused by
(ans: staph. Aureus)

fmge 2005

ALL INDIA
PAPER 2005
SOLVED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

ANATOMY
Q 1. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except:
A. Median nerve.
B. Flexor pollicis longus.
C. Flexor carpi radialis.
D. Flexor digitorum superficialis.
Ans. C
Q 2. The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except:
A. Femoral vein.
B. Inguinal ligament.
C. Femoral artery.
D. Lacunar ligament.
Ans. C
Q 3. All of the following statements regarding vas deferens are true except:
A. The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla.
B. It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine.
C. It passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring.
D. It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum.
Ans. D
Q 4. The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it:
A. Carries secretomotor fibers to slubmandibular gland.
B. Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa
C. Is a branch of facial nerve.
D. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
Ans. D
Q 5. The type of joint between the sacrum and coccyx is a:
A. Symphysis
B. Syostosis
C. Synchondrosis
D. Syndesmosis
Ans. A
Q 6. The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following geatures, except that it:
A. Is the widest and most dilatable part.
B. Presents a concavity posteriorly.
C. Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate.
D. Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall.
Ans. B

Q 7. The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except;
A. External iliac.
B. Internal iliac.
C. Superficial inguinal.
D. Deep inguinal
Ans. D
Q 8. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except;
A. Proliferation and hypertrophy.
B. Calcification and ossification.
C. Vasculogenesis and erosion.
D. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.
Ans. D
Q 9. Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the:
A. Entire prostate gland.
B. Lateral lobes.
C. Median lobe.
D. Posterior lobes.
Ans. C
Q 10. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures can be felt anteriorly except:
A. Internal iliac lymph nodes.
B. Bulb of the penis.
C. Prostate.
D. Seminal vesicle when enlarged.
Ans. A
Q 11. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along:
A. Upper border of the rib.
B. Lower border of the rib.
C. In the center of the intercostals space.
D. In anterior part of intercostals space.
Ans. A
Q 12. All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery except:
A. Superior thyroid artery.
B. Anterior ethmoidal artery.
C. Occipital artery.
D. Posterior auricular artery.
Ans. B

Q 13. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle:
A. Interphase.
B. Metaplase.
C. G1 phase.
D. Telophase.
Ans. A
PHYSIOLOGY
Q 14. The type of hemoglobin that has least affinity for 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) or (2,3-BPG) is:
A. Hg A.
B. Hg F.
C. Hg B.
D. Hg A2.
Ans. B
Q 15. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following except:
A. Intermediate filaments.
B. Actin.
C. Tubulin.
D. Myosin.
Ans. D
Q 16. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in:
A. Kidney.
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow.
Ans. C
Q 17. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is:
A. 20-40 mg/dl
B. 40-70 mg/dl
C. 70-90 mg/dl
D. 90-110 mg/dl.
Ans. B
Q 18. Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling?
A. CO2
B. O2
C. NO
D. N2
Ans. C
Q 19. Osteoclasts are inhibited by:
A. Parathyroid hormone.
B. Calcitonin.
C. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
D. Tumor necrosis factor.
Ans. B
Q 20. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as:
A. Dissolved CO2.
B. Carbonic acid
C. Carbamino-hemoglobin
D. Bicarbonate.
Ans. D
Q 21. Both vitamin K and C are involved in:
A. The synthesis of clotting factors.
B. Post translational modifications.
C. Antioxidant mechanisms.
D. The microsomal hydroxylation reactions.
Ans. B
Q 22. The main site of bicarbonate reabsorption is:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule.
B. Distal convoluted tubule.
C. Cortical collecting duct.
D. Medullary collecting duct.
Ans. A
Q 23. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in:
A. Cell motility.
B. Receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C. Exocytosis.
D. Cell shape.
Ans. B
Q 24. The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual cortex is most sensitive for the stimulus of:
A. Color contrast.
B. Luminance contrast.
C. Temporal grequency.
D. Saccadic eye movements.
Ans. A
Q 25. The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina project to the following layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus:
A. Layers 2, 3 & 5.
B. Layers 1, 2 & 6.
C. Layers 1, 4 & 6.
D. Layers 4, 5 & 6.
Ans. C
Q 26. All endothelial cells produce thrombomodulin except those found in:
A. Hepatic circulation
B. Cutaneous circulation
C. Cerebral microcirculation.
D. Renal circulation.
Ans. C
Q 27. SA node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it:
A. Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously.
B. Has rich sympathetic innervations.
C. Has poor cholinergic innervations.
D. Generates impulses at the highest rate.
Ans. D
Q 28. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is:
A. Sweating
B. Vasodilatation.
C. Decrease heat production.
D. Non-shivering thermogenesis.
Ans. B
Q 29. All of the following factors normally increase the length of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibres except:
A. Increased venous tone.
B. Increased total blood volume.
C. Increased negative intrathoracic pressure.
D. Lying-to-standing change in posture.
Ans. D
Q 30. The vasodilatation produced by carbon dioxide is maximum in one of the following:
A. Kidney.
B. Brain.
C. Liver.
D. Heart.
Ans. B
Q 31. Which one of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in the tubules?
A. The bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to Na+ reabsorption.
B. Majority of facultative reabsorption occurs in proximal tubule.
C. Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent.
D. 20% of water is always reabsorbed irrespective of water balance.
Ans. A
Q 32. Urinary concentrating ability of the kidney is increased by:
A. ECF volume contraction.
B. Increase in RBF.
C. Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity.
D. Increase in CFR.
Ans. A
Q 33. Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the:
A. Arteries.
B. Arterioles.
C. Capillaries.
D. Venules.
Ans. B
Q 34. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?
A. Anaemia.
B. CO poisoning.
C. Moderate exercise.
D. Hypoventilation.
Ans. D
Q 35. With which one of the following lower motor neuron lesions are associated?
A. Flaccid paralysis.
B. Hyperactive stretch reflex.
C. Spasticity.
D. Muscular incorrdination.
Ans. A
Q 36. Which of the following statements can be regarded as primary action of inhibin?
A. It inhibits secretion of prolactin.
B. It stimulates synthesis of estradiol.
C. It stimulates secretion of TSH.
D. It inhibits secretion of FSH.
Ans. D
BIOCHEMISTRY
Q 37. The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is:
A. LD-1
B. LD-2
C. LD-3
D. LD-5
Ans. A
Q 38. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except:
A. Adrenalin
B. Growth hormone.
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine.
Ans. D
Q 39. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estimation, inbibits the enzyme:
A. Glucokinase.
B. Hexokinase.
C. Enolase.
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
Ans. C
Q 40. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as:
A. Ligases.
B. Oxido-reductases.
C. Transferases.
D. Dipeptidases.
Ans. C
Q 41. The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is:
A. Lysine.
B. Histidine.
C. Tyrosine.
D. Proline.
Ans. D
MICROBIOLOGY
Q 42. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical twin. What type of graft it is?
A. Xenograft
B. Autograft
C. Allograft
D. Isograft.
Ans. D
Q 43. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as:
A. Transduction.
B. Transformation.
C. Transcription.
D. Integration.
Ans. A
Q 44. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by:
A. ADP-ribosylation of the G regulatory protein.
B. Inhibition of adenyl cyclase.
C. Activation of GTPase.
D. Active absorption of NaCl.
Ans. A
Q 45. HIV can be detected and confirmed by:
A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B. Reverse transcriptase - PCR
C. Real time PCR
D. Mimic PCR.
Ans. B
Q 46. With reference to infections with Escherichia coli the following are true except:
A. Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated with pwesistent diarrhoea.
B. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome.
C. Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease similar to salmonellosis.
D. Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a common cause of travelers diarrhoea.
Ans. C
Q 47. The following statements are true regarding melioidosis except:
A. It is caused by Burkholderia mallei.
B. The agent is a grain negative aerobic bacteria.
C. Bipolar staining of the aetiological agent is seen with methylene blue stain.
D. The most common form of melioidosis is pulmonary infection.
Ans. A
Q 48. The following bacteria are most often associated with acute neonatal meningitis except:
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Streptococcus agalactiae.
C. Neisseria meningitidis.
D. Listeria monocytogenes.
Ans. C
Q 49. All of the following Vibrio sp. are halophilic, except:
A. V. cholerae.
B. V. parahaemolyticus.
C. V. alginolyticus.
D. V. fluvialis.
Ans. A
Q 50. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except:
A. Neisseria meningitides.
B. Salmonella typhi.
C. Streptococcus pyogenes.
D. Legionella pneumophila.
Ans. C
Q 51. The capsule of Cryptococus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by:
A. Grams stain.
B. India ink preparation.
C. Giemsa stain.
D. Methanamine-silver stain.
Ans. B
Q 52. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except:
A. Tissue culture.
B. Embryonated eggs.
C. Animals.
D. Chemicaly defined media.
Ans. D
Q 53. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranes that:
A. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.
B. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
C. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.
D. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.
Ans. A
Q 54. An army jawan posted in a remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104°F and pulse was 70 per mibn. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following results in Weil-Felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting:
A. High OX-2.
B. High OX-19.
C. High OX-K.
D. High OX-19 and OX-2.
Ans. C
Q 55. Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency is associated with:
A. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
B. X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
C. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy.
D. Chronic granulomatous disease.
Ans. A
Q 56. Which of the following viral infections is transmitted by tick?
A. Japanese encephalitis.
B. Dengue fever.
C. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD).
D. Yellow fever.
Ans. C
Q 57. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents except:
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B. Legionella pneumophila.
C. Human Corona virus.
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Ans. D
Q 58. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?
A. IgG1.
B. IgG2.
C. IgG3.
D. IgG4.
Ans. A
Q 59. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with the following except:
A. Endemic trachoma.
B. Inclusion conjunctivitis.
C. Lymphogranuloma venereum.
D. Community acquired pneumonia.
Ans. D
Q 60. The following statements are true regarding Clostridium perfringens except:
A. It is commonest cause of gas gangrene.
B. It is normally present in human faeces.
C. The principal toxin of C.perfringens is the alpha toxin.
D. Gas gangrene producing strains of C.perfringens produce heat resistant spores.
Ans. D
Q 61. The most common organism amongst the following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. Streptococcus agalactiae.
C. Cryptococcus neoformans.
D. Listeria monocytogenes.
Ans. C
Q 62. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs” i.e., rats, ricefields, and rainfall is:
A. Leptospirosis.
B. Plague.
C. Melioidosis.
D. Rodent-bite fever.
Ans. A
Q 63. A child was diagnosed to be suffering from diarrhoea due to Campylobacter jejuni. Which of the following will be the correct environmental conditions of incubation of the culture plates of the stool sample:
A. Temperature of 42°C and microaerophilic.
B. Temperature of 42°C and 10% carbon dioxide.
C. Temperature of 37°C and microaerophilic.
D. Temperature of 37°C and 10% carbon dioxide.
Ans. A
Q 64. Which one of the following statements is true regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae:
A. Fifteen serovars have been identified as human pathogens.
B. Mode of transmission is by the airborne bird excreta.
C. The cytoplasmic inclusions present in the sputum specimen are rich in glycogen.
D. The group specific antigen is responsible for the production of complement fixing antibodies.
Ans. D
Q 65. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?
A. IgA.
B. IgG.
C. IgM.
D. IgE.
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY
Q 66. An example of a tumour suppressor gene is:
A. Myc.
B. Fos.
C. Ras.
D. Rb.
Ans. D
Q 67. The following is not a feature of malignant transformation by cultured cells:
A. Increased cell density.
B. Increased requirement for growth factors.
C. Alterations of cytoskeletal structures.
D. Loss of anchorage.
Ans. B
Q 68. A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is:
A. Ames test.
B. Redox test.
C. Bacteriophage.
D. Gene splicing.
Ans. A
Q 69. The classification proposed by the International Lymphoma Study Group for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is known as:
A. Kiel classification.
B. REAL classification.
C. WHO classification.
D. Rappaport classification.
Ans. B
Q 70. All of the following features are seen in the viral pneumonia except:
A. Presence of interstitial inflammation.
B. Predominance of alveolar exudates.
C. Bronchiolitis.
D. Multinucleate giant cells in the bronchiolar wall.
Ans. B
Q 71. Aschoff’s nodules are seen in:
A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
B. Libman-Sacks endocarditis.
C. Rheumatic carditis.
D. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis.
Ans. C
Q 72. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by:
A. Type I pneumoncytes.
B. Type II pneumocytes.
C. Clara cells.
D. Bronchila epithelial cells.
Ans. B
Q 73. Which one of the following conditions commonly predisposes to colonic carcinoma?
A. Ulcerative colitis.
B. Crohn’s disease.
C. Diverticular disease.
D. Ischaemic colitis.
Ans. A
Q 74. Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed in all of the following except:
A. Malignant hypertension.
B. Polyarteritis nodosa.
C. Diabetic glomerulosclerosis.
D. Aschoff’s nodule.
Ans. C
Q 75. All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except:
A. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix.
B. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
C. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane.
D. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum.
Ans. A
Q 76. Which of the following statements pertaining to leukemia is correct?
A. Blasts of acute myeloid leukemia are typically sudan black negative.
B. Blasts of acute lymphoblastic leukemia are typically myeloperoxidase positive.
C. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase score is characteristically seen in blastic phase of chronic myeloid leukemia.
D. Tartarate resistant acid phosphatase positivity is typically seen in hairy cell leukemiA.
Ans. D
Q 77. In which of the following conditions bilateral contracted kidneys are characteristically seen?
A. Amyloidosis.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis.
D. Benign nephrosclerosis.
Ans. D
Q 78. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except:
A. Vasodilation.
B. Stasis of blood.
C. Increased vascular permeability.
D. Decreased hydrostatic pressure.
Ans. D
Q 79. The subtype of Hodgkin’s disease, which is histogenetically distinct from all the other subtypes, is:
A. Lymphocyte predominant.
B. Nodular sclerosis.
C. Mixed cellularity.
D. Lymphocyte depleted.
Ans. A
Q 80. In apoptosis, Apaf-1 is activated by release of which of the following substances from the mitochondria?
A. Bcl-2
B. Bax.
C. Bcl-XL
D. Cytochrome C.
Ans. D
Q 81. Which type of amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyretin protein?
A. Familial Mediterranean fever.
B. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy.
C. Dialysis associated amyloidosis.
D. Prion protein associated amyloidosis.
Ans. B
Q 82. In familial Mediterranean fever, the gene encoding the following protein undergoes mutation:
A. Pyrin.
B. Perforin.
C. Atrial natriuretic factor.
D. Immunoglobulin light chain.
Ans. A
Q 83. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Patinets with IgD myeloma may present with no evident M-spike on serum electrophoresis.
B. A diagnosis of plasma cell leukemia can be made if circulating peripheral blood plasmablasts comprise 14% of peripheral blood white cells in a patient with 109/L.´ 109/L and platelet count of 88 ´white blood cell count of 11
C. In smoldering myeloma plasma cells constitute 10-30% of total bone marrow cellularity.
D. In a patient with multiple myeloma, a monoclonal light chain may be detected in both serum and urine.
Ans. B
Q 84. In-situ DNA nick end labeling can quantitate:
A. Fraction of cells in apoptotic pathways.
B. Fraction of cells in S phase.
C. p53 gene product.
D. bcr/abl gene.
Ans. A
Q 85. Which one of the following stains is specific for amyloid?
A. Periodic acid Schiff (PAS)
B. Alzerian red.
C. Congo red.
D. Von-Kossa.
Ans. C
Q 86. Which one of the following diseases characteristically causes fatty change in liver?
A. Hepatitis B virus infection.
B. Wilson’s disease.
C. Hepatitis C virus infection.
D. Chronic alcoholism.
Ans. D
Q 87. A 48-year-old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlared and spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 x 109/L and total leukocyte count 40 x 109/L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lumphoid cells were positive for CD19, CD5, CD20 and CD23 and were negative for CD79B and FMC-7.
The histopathological examination of the lymph node in this patient will most likely exhibit effeacement of lymph node architecture by:
A. A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers.
B. A monomorphic lymphoid proliferation with a nodular pattern.
C. A predominantly follicular pattern.
D. A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate.
Ans. D
Q 88. Which one of the following is not a feature of liver histology in non cirrhotic portal fibrosis (NCPF).
A. Fibrosis in and around the portal tracts.
B. Thrombosis of the medium and small portal vein branches.
C. Non specific inflammatory cell infiltrates in the portal tracts.
D. Bridging fibrosis.
Ans. D
PHARMACOLOGY
Q 89. A highly ionized drug:
A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney.
B. Can cross the placental barrier easily.
C. Is well absorbed from the intestine.
D. Accumulates in the cellular lipids.
Ans. A
Q 90. Which one of the following drugs is ‘topoisomerase 1 inhibitor’?
A. Doxorubicin.
B. Irinotecan.
C. Etoposide.
D. Vincristine.
Ans. B
Q 91. The following drugs have significant drug interaction with digoxin, except:
A. Cholestyramine.
B. Thiazide diuretics.
C. Quinidine.
D. Amlodipine.
Ans. D
Q 92. One of the following is not true about nesiritide:
A. It is a brain natriuretic peptide analogue.
B. It is used in acutely decompensated heart failure.
C. It has significant oral absorption.
D. It has a short half-life.
Ans. C
Q 93. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by:
A. Anticholinergics.
B. Levodopa.
C. Selegiline.
D. Amantadine.
Ans. A
Q 94. Which one of the following is used in therapy of toxoplasmosis?
A. Artensenuate.
B. Thiacetazone.
C. Ciprofloxacin.
D. Pyrimethamine.
Ans. D
Q 95. The following statements regarding finasteride are true except:
A. It is used in the medical treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
B. Impotence is well documented after its use.
C. It blocks the conversion of dihydrotestosterone to testosterone.
D. It is a 5-a reductase inhibitor.
Ans. C
Q 96. Eternacept acts by one of the following mechanisms:
A. By blocking tumor necorosis factor.
B. By blocking bradykinin synthesis.
C. By inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase-2.
D. By blocking lipoxygenase.
Ans. A
Q 97. In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the risk of kernicterus increases with the use of:
A. Ceftriaxone.
B. Phenobarbitone.
C. Ampicillin.
D. Sulphonamide.
Ans. D
Q 98. All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except:
A. Sulphacetamide.
B. Sulphadiazine.
C. Silver sulphadiazine.
D. Mafenide.
Ans. B
Q 99. Oculogyric crisis is know to be produced by all of the following drugs except:
A. Trifluoperazine.
B. Atropine.
C. Perchlorperazine.
D. Perphenazine.
Ans. B
Q 100. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine?
A. Proproanolol.
B. Sumatriptan.
C. Domperidone.
D. Ergotamine.
Ans. A
Q 101. Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is:
A. Phenobarbitone.
B. Flumazenil.
C. Beta-Carboline.
D. Gabapentin.
Ans. C
Q 102. The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is:
A. Tetracyclines.
B. Polypeptide antibiotics.
C. Fluoroquinolones.
D. Macrolides.
Ans. D
Q 103. With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?
A. Histamine receptors.
B. Bradykinin receptors.
C. Adenosine receptors.
D. Imidazoline receptors.
Ans. C
Q 104. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible:
A. Amoxicillin.
B. Penicillin G.
C. Piperacillin.
D. Cloxacillin.
Ans. D
Q 105. Which one of the following is best associated with lumefantrine?
A. Antimycobacterial.
B. Antifungal.
C. Antimalarial.
D. Antiamoebic.
Ans. C
Q 106. Which one of the following drugs increases gastro-intestinal motility?
A. Glycopyrrolate.
B. Atropine.
C. Neostigmine.
D. Fentanyl.
Ans. C
Q 107. Nevirapine is a:
A. Protease inhibitor.
B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
D. Fusion inhibitor.
Ans. C
FORENSIC MEDICINE
Q 108. In a firearm injury, there is burning, blackening, toattooing around the wound, along with cherry red colour of the surrounding tissues and is cruciate in shape, the injury is:
A. Close shot entry.
B. Close contact exit.
C. Contact shot entry.
D. Distant shot entry.
Ans. C
Q 109. In methyl alcohol poisoning there is CNS depression cardiac depression and optic nerve atrophy. These effects are produced due to:
A. Formaldehyde and formic acid.
B. Acetaldehyde.
C. Pyridine.
D. Acetie acid.
Ans. A
Q 110. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory examination except:
A. Nail clippings.
B. Hair samples.
C. Bone biopsy.
D. Blood sample.
Ans. D
Q 111. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diatom?
A. Diatoms are aquatic unicellular plant.
B. Diatoms has an extracellular coat composed of magnesium.
C. Acid diagestion technique is used to extract diatoms.
D. Presence of diatoms in the femoral bone marrow is an indication of antemartem inhalation of water.
Ans. B
Q 112. In India, magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except:
A. Exhumation cases.
B. Dowry deaths within 5 years of marriage.
C. Murder cases.
D. Death of a person in police custody.
Ans. C
Q 113. At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except:
A. Characteristic bitter lemon smell.
B. Congested organs.
C. The skin may be pinkish or cherry red in colour.
D. Erosion and haemorrhages in oesophagus and stomach.
Ans. A
Q 114. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is:
A. Cementum apposition.
B. Transparency of root.
C. Attrition.
D. Root resorption.
Ans. B
Q 115. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is:
A. 7 years.
B. 12 years.
C. 16 years.
D. 21 years.
Ans. A
Q 116. The most reliable method of identification of an individual is:
A. Dactylography.
B. Scars.
C. Anthropometry.
D. Handwriting.
Ans. A
Q 117. The most common pattern of finger print is:
A. Arch.
B. Loop.
C. Whorl.
D. Composite.
Ans. B
PSM
Q 118. ‘Endemic disease’ means that a disease:
A. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
B. Is constantly present in a given population group.
C. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
D. Is prevalent among animals.
Ans. B
Q 119. Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?
A. Cause specific death rate.
B. Case fatality rate.
C. Standardized mortality ratio.
D. Five year survival.
Ans. B
Q 120. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?
A. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.
B. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.
C. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD.
D. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.
Ans. B
Q 121. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of:
A. Tetracycline.
B. Co-trimoxazole.
C. Doxycycline.
D. Furazolidone.
Ans. C
Q 122. All of the following statements are true about congenital rubella except:
A. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth.
B. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 months.
C. Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract.
D. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects.
Ans. D
Q 123. The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is:
A. 1800.
B. 2100.
C. 2300.
D. 2900.
Ans. D
Q 124. All of the following methods are antilarval measures except:
A. Intermittent irrigation.
B. Paris green.
C. Gamusia affinis.
D. Malathion.
Ans. D
Q 125. All of the following are true about the herd immunity for infectious diseases except:
A. It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals.
B. It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase.
C. It is affected by the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts.
D. In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual.
Ans. B
Q 126. The best indicator for monitoring the impact of iodine deficiency disorder control programme is:
A. Prevalence of goiter among school children.
B. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women.
C. Neonatal hypothyroidism.
D. Iodine level in soil.
Ans. C
Q 127. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts:
A. Yellow.
B. Black.
C. Red.
D. Blue.
Ans. A
Q 128. WHO defines adolescent age between:
A. 10-19 years of age.
B. 10-14 years of age.
C. 10-25 years of age.
D. 9-14 years of age.
Ans. A
Q 129. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease. The results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are as follows.
Test result Disease
Present Absent
+ 180 400
– 20 400
What is the percent prevalence of disease?
A. 0.20
B. 2
C. 18
D. 20
Ans. D
Q 130. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:
A. Phosphatase test.
B. Standard plate count.
C. Coliform count.
D. Methylene blue reduction test.
Ans. D
Q 131. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm:
A. 27
B. 30
C. 33
D. 36
Ans. B
Q 132. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:
A. Bleeding.
B. Pain.
C. Pelvic infection.
D. Ectopic pregnancy.
Ans. A
Q 133. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except:
A. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity.
B. Give ARV.
C. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.
D. Immediately wash wound with soap and water.
Ans. C
Q 134. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:
A. Very severe disease.
B. Severe pneumonia.
C. Pneumonia.
D. No pneumonia.
Ans. A
Q 135. The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the Information Technology Act was passed by the Government of India?
A. 1998.
B. 2000.
C. 2001.
D. 2003.
Ans. B
Q 136. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in:
A. 1996
B. 1993
C. 1998
D. 1994
Ans. D
Q 137. Which one of the following is not source of manager’s power?
A. Reward
B. Coercive
C. Legitimate.
D. Efferent.
Ans. D
Q 138. The standard normal distribution:
A. Is skewed to the left.
B. Has mean = 1.0
C. Has standard deviation = 0.0
D. Has variance = 1.0
Ans. D
Q 139. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20 1/min:
A. About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 1/min.
B. The girls have healthy lungs.
C. About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260 1/min.
D. All the PEFR must be less than 340 l/min.
Ans. A
Q 140. The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so:
A. Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) + Prob (B).
B. Prob (A and B) = Prob (A). Prob (B).
C. Prob (A) = Prob (B).
D. Prob (A) + Prob (B) = 1.
Ans. D
Q 141. Total cholesterol level = a + b (calorie intake) + C (physical activity) + d (body mass index); is an example of:
A. Simple linear regression.
B. Simple curvilinear regression.
C. Multiple linear regression.
D. Multiple logistic regression.
Ans. C
Q 142. The Hb level in healthy woman has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15.0 g/dl:
A. 9.0
B. 10.0
C. 2.0
D. 1.0
Ans. D
Q 143. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by:
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictivity
D. Negative predictivity.
Ans. D
Q 144. Infant mortality does not include:
A. Early neonatal mortality.
B. Perinatal mortality.
C. Post neonatal mortality.
D. Late neonatal mortality.
Ans. B
Q 145. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r=0.90, p=0.01) between the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of the correlation coefficient observed?
A. Since there is a high correlation, the magnitudes of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other.
B. A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol.
C. A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol.
D. About 80% of the variation in systolic blood pressure among his patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values and vice a versa.
Ans. A
Q 146. The most common cancer affecting Indian urban women in Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai is:
A. Cervical cancer.
B. Ovarian cancer.
C. Breast cancer.
D. Uterine cancer.
Ans. C
MEDICINE
Q 147. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
A. Gram positive organisms.
B. Gram negative organisms.
C. Mycoplasma.
D. Virus infections.
Ans. B
Q 148. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes:
A. Increased RV/TLC.
B. Reduced FEV1/FVC.
C. Reduced FEV25-75.
D. Increased FRC.
Ans. A
Q 149. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux?
A. Ondansetron.
B. Metoclopramide.
C. Sodium citrate.
D. Atropine.
Ans. C
Q 150. Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy?
A. It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands.
B. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids.
C. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5 mg, prednisolone daily.
D. Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks.
Ans. C
Q 151. A 30-year-old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on left lside. On examination, BP was 160/140 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed a Hb-12 gm, TLC-12000 cumm, platelets 4,30,000, ESR-49 mm. Urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC 10-15/ hpf with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Polyarteritis nodosa.
B. Systemic LUPUS erythematosus.
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis.
D. Mixed cryoglobulemia.
Ans. A
Q 152. Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption?
A. Giardia lamblia.
B. Ascaris lumbricoides.
C. Necater americana.
D. Ancylostoma duodenale.
Ans. A
Q 153. All of the following can cause osteoporosis except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism.
B. Steroid use.
C. Fluorosis.
D. Thyrotoxicosis.
Ans. C
Q 154. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in all of the following except:
A. Sarcoidosis.
B. Silicosis.
C. Berylliosis.
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma.
Ans. D
Q 155. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:
A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
B. Parthyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
C. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
D. Calcitonin.
Ans. B
Q 156. All of the following are the causes of relative polycythemia except:
A. Dehydration.
B. Dengue haemorrhagic fever.
C. Gaisbock syndrome.
D. High altitude.
Ans. D
Q 157. All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on EKG, except:
A. Early repolarization variant.
B. Constrictive pericarditis.
C. Ventricular aneurysm.
D. Prinzmetal angina.
Ans. B
Q 158. 5’-Nucleotidase activity is increased in:
A. Bone diseases.
B. Prostate cancer.
C. Chronic renal failure.
D. Cholestatic disorders.
Ans. D
Q 159. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is lethal because:
A. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen.
-globin form insoluble precipitates.aB. The excess
C. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues.
D. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta.
Ans. C
Q 160. Cluster headache is characterized by all except:
A. Affects predominantly females.
B. Unilateral headache.
C. Onset typically in 20-50 years of life.
D. Associated with conjunctival congestion.
Ans. A
Q 161. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:
A. Elevated serum ACh-receptor binding antibodies.
B. Repetitive nerve stimulation test.
C. Positive edrophonium test.
D. Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography.
Ans. A

Q 162. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except:
A. Myelopathy.
B. Optic atrophy.
C. Peripheral neuropathy.
D. Myopathy.
Ans. D
Q 163. EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following except:
A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
B. Locked-in state.
C. Creutzfoldt-Jackob disease.
D. Hepatic encephalopathy.
Ans. B
Q 164. All of the following are neurologic channelopathies except:
A. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
B. Episodic ataxia type 1.
C. FAMILIAL hemiplegic migraine.
D. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1.
Ans. D
Q 165. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Acanthamoeba.
C. Naegleria.
D. Trichinella spiralis.
Ans. D
Q 166. A 50-year-old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3 hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest X-ray showed left pleural effusion.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute aortic dissection.
B. Acute myocardial infarction.
C. Rupture of the esophagus.
D. Acute pulmonary embolism.
Ans. A
Q 167. Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia?
A. Subacute combined degeneration.
B. Picks disease.
C. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease.
D. Alzheimer’s disease.
Ans. A
Q 168. Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except:
a. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Small-vessel vasculitis.
C. Disseminated gonococcal infection.
D. Acute meningococcemia.
Ans. A
Q 169. A 59-year-old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment is:
A. Mitral valve repair of replacement.
B. No treatment.
C. ACE inhibitor therapy.
D. Digoxin and diuretic therapy.
Ans. A
Q 170. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:
A. Dual energy X-ray absorptimetry.
B. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry.
C. Ultrasound.
D. Quantiative computed tomography.
Ans. A
Q 171. All of the following CSF findings are present in tuberculous meningitis, except:
A. Raised protein levels.
B. Low chloride levels.
C. Cob web formation.
D. Raised sugar levels.
Ans. D
Q 172. Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver diseae?
A. Aminotransaminase.
B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Bilirubin.
D. Albumin.
Ans. D
Q 173. All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus except:
A. Multiple sclerosis.
B. Head injury.
C. Histiocytosis.
D. Viral encephalitis.
Ans. A
Q 174. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to:
A. Cavernous sinus.
B. Apex of orbit.
C. Brainstem.
D. Base of skull.
Ans. A
Q 175. Which one of the following is the most common location of hypertensive bleed in the brain ?
A. Putamen/external capsule.
B. Pons.
C. Ventricles.
D. Lobar white matter.
Ans. A
Q 176. In which of the following diseases, the overall survival is increased by screening procedure?
A. Prostate cancer.
B. Lung cancer.
C. Colon cancer.
D. Ovarian cancer.
Ans. C
Paediatrics
Q 177. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with:
A. IgM antibodies.
B. Lysozyme.
C. Mast cells.
D. IgA antibodies.
Ans. D
Q 178. Study the following carefully:

Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is:
A. Autosomal recessive type.
B. Autosomal dominant type.
C. X linked dominant type.
D. X linked recessive type.
Ans. D
Q 179. Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is established by:
A. NESTROFT test.
B. HbA1c estimation.
C. Hb electrophoresis.
D. Target cells in peripheral smear.
Ans. C
Q 180. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on:
A. Cord blood.
B. 24 hours after birth.
C. 48 hours after birth.
D. 72 hours after birth.
Ans. D
Q 181. A child with recurrent urinary tract infections is most likely to show:
A. Posterior urethral valves.
B. Vesicoureteric reflux.
C. Neurogenic bladder.
D. Renal and ureteric calculi.
Ans. B
Q 182. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency, except:
A. Hemolytic anemia.
B. Posterior column abnormalities.
C. Cerebellar ataxia.
D. Autonomic dysfunction.
Ans. D
Q 183. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:
A. Genomic imprinting.
B. Mosaicism.
C. Anticipation.
D. Non penetrance.
Ans. A
Q 184. The appropriate approach to a neonate presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4 of life is:
A. Administration of vitamin K.
B. Investigation for bleeding disorder.
C. No specific therapy.
D. Administration of 10ml/kg of fresh frozen plasma over 4 hours.
Ans. C
Q 185. Which one of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A. Hydrocortisone.
B. Prednisolone.
C. Fludrocortisone.
D. Dexamethasone.
Ans. D
Q 186. The coagulation profile in a 13-year-old girl with menorrhagia having von-Willebrands disease is:
A. Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT.
B. Isolated prolonged PT with a normal PTT.
C. Prolongation of both PT and PTT.
D. Prolongation of thrombin time.
Ans. A
Q 187. The chances of having an unaffected baby, when both parents have achondroplasia, are:
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%
Ans. B
Q 188. All of the following therapies may be required in a 1 hour-old infant with severe birth asphyxia except:
A. Glucose
B. Dexamethasone.
C. Calcium gluconate.
D. Normal saline.
Ans. B
Q 189. The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis affecting children is:
A. Takayasu disease.
B. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki disease)
C. Henoch Schonlein purpura.
D. Polyarteritis nodosa.
Ans. C
Q 190. A four year old boy was admitted with a history of abdominal pain and fever for two months, maculopapular rash for ten days, and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for three days. On examination, liver and spleen were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively below the costal margins. His hemoglobin was 109/L, which´ 109/L and total leukocyte count 70 ´10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 included 80% eosinophils. Bone marrow examination revealed a cellular marrow comprising 45% blasts and 34% eosinophils and eosinophilic precursors. The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and non-specific esterase and were positive for CD19, CD10, CD22 and CD20.
Which one of the following statements in not true about this disease?
A. Eosinophils are not of the neoplastic clone.
B. t(5:14) rearrangement may be detected in blasts.
C. Peripheral blood wosinophilia may normalize with chemotherapy.
D. Inv (16) is often detected in the blasts and the eosinophils.
Ans. D
Q 191. kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic uremic syndrome characteristically most likely presents features of:
A. Thrombotic microangiopathy.
B. Proliferative glomerulonephritis.
C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.
D. Minimal change disease.
Ans. A
Q 192. One of the intestinal enzymes that is generally deficient in children following an attack of severe infectious enteritis is:
A. Lactase.
B. Trypsin.
C. Lipase.
D. Amylase.
Ans. A
Q 193. A new born presented with bloated abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full-thickness biopsy of the rectum was carried out. Which one of the following rectal biopsy findings is most likely to be present?
A. Fibrosis of submucosa.
B. Hyalinisation of the muscular coat.
C. Thickened muscularis propria.
D. Lack of ganglion cells.
Ans. D
Q 194. Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by all except:
A. Return of left ventricle & right ventricle to normal size.
B. Pulmonary veins not distended.
C. Pruning of peripheral pulmonary arteries.
D. Dilatation of central pulmonary arteries.
Ans. A
Q 195. Which of the following is the most common renal cystic disease in infants is?
A. Polycystic kidnesy.
B. Simple renal cyst.
C. Unilateral renal dysplasia.
D. Calyceal cyst.
Ans. C
Q 196. The most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is:
A. Supracardiac
B. Infracardiac.
C. Mixed.
D. Cardiac.
Ans. A
Q 197. The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is:
A. Trauma.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis.
D. Interstitial nephritis.
Ans. C
Q 198. Which one of the following is the common cause of congential hydrocephalus is?
A. Craniosynostosis.
B. Intra uterine meningitis.
C. Aqueductal stenosis.
D. Malformations of great Vein of Galen .
Ans. C
Q 199. In a child, non-functioning kidney is best diagnosed by:
A. Ultrasonography.
B. IVU.
C. DTPA renogram.
D. Creatinine clearance.
Ans. C
Q 200. The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is:
A. Malignant teratoma.
B. Neuroblastoma.
C. Wilms’ tumor.
D. Hepatoblastoma.
Ans. B
Q 201. The most common presentation of a child with Wilms’ tumor is:
A. An asymptomatic abdominal mass.
B. Haematuria.
C. Hypertension.
D. Hemoptysis due to pulmonary secondary.
Ans. A
Psychiatry
Q 202. A 40-year-old male, with history of daily alcohol consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the hospital emergency room with acute onset of seeing snakes all around him in the room, not recognizing family members, violent behavior and tremulousness for having missed the alcohol drink since 2 days, Examination reveals increased blood pressure, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment and insight.
He is most likely to be suffering from:
A. Alcoholic hallucinosis.
B. Delirium tremens.
C. Wernicke encephalopathy.
D. Korsakoff’s psychosis.
Ans. B
Q 203. A 45-year-male with a history of alcohol dependence presents with confusion nystagmus and ataxia. Examination reveals 6th cranial nerve weakness. He is most likely to be suffering from:
A. Korsakoff’s psychosis.
B. Wernicke encephalopathy.
C. De Clerambault syndrome.
D. Delirium tremens.
Ans. B
Q 204. A 25-year-old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies:
A. Exposure and response prevention.
B. Systematic desensitization.
C. Assertiveness training.
D. Sensate focusing.
Ans. A
Q 205. An 18 year old boy came to the Psychiatry OPD with a complaint of feeling changed from inside. He described himself as feeling strange as if he is different from his normal self. He was very tense and anxious yet could not point out the precise change in him. This phenomena is best called as:
A. Delusional mood.
B. Depersonalization.
C. Autochthonous delusion.
D. Over valued idea.
Ans. B
Q 206. The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that:
A. The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin.
B. The former cause tardive dyskinesia.
C. The former are available as parenteral preparations.
D. The latter cause substantial sedation.
Q 207. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of:
A. Muscarininc acetylcholine receptors.
B. Serotonergic receptors.
C. Dopaminergic receptors.
D. GABA receptors.
Q 208. All of the following are hallucinogens, except:
A. LSD
B. Phenylcyclidine.
C. Mescaline.
D. Methylphendate.
Ans. D
Q 209. An 18 year old student complains of lack of interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his parents and has frequent headaches. The most appropriate clinical approach would be to:
A. Leave him as normal adolescent problem.
B. Rule out depression.
C. Rule out migraine.
D. Rule out an oppositional defiant disorder.
Ans. B
Q 210. Perseveration is:
A. Persistent and inappropriate repetition of the same thoughts.
B. When a patient feels very distressed about it.
C. Characteristic of schizophrenia.
D. Characteristic of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD).
Ans. A
Q 211. One of the following usually differentiates hysterical symptoms from hypochondriacal symptoms:
A. Symptoms do not normally reflect understandable physiological or pathological mechanism.
B. Physical symptoms are prominent which are not explained by organic factors.
C. Personality traits are significant.
D. Symptoms run a chronic course.
Ans. A
Dermatology
Q 212. All of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except:
A. Selenium sulphide.
B. Ketoconazole.
C. Griseofulvin.
D. Clotrimazole.
Ans. C
Q 213. A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Erythema annulare centrifugum.
B. Granuloma annulare.
C. Annular lichen planus.
D. Tinea cruris.
Ans. D
Q 214. A 16-year-old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a callarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis versicolor.
B. Pityriasis alba.
C. Pityriasis rosea.
D. Pityriasis rubra pilaris.
Ans. C
Q 215. The only definite indication for giving systemic corticosteroids in pustular PSORIASIS is:
A. Psoriatic enythroderma with pregnancy.
B. PSORIASIS in a patient with alcoholic cirrhosis.
C. Moderate arthritis.
D. Extensive lesions.
Ans. D
Q 216. A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 year history of erythematous papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face. There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis in the patient is:
A. Acne vulgaris.
B. Rosacea.
C. Systemic LUPUS erythematosus.
D. Polymorphic light eruption.
Ans. B
Q 217. An 8-year-old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 months history of an illdefined, hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis alba.
B. Indeterminate leprosy.
C. Morphoca.
D. Calcium deficiency.
Ans. B
Q 218. A 27-year-old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Behcet’s syndrome.
B. Herpes genitalis.
C. Fixed drug eruption.
D. Pemphigus vulgaris.
Ans. C
Surgery
Q 219. According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS) a verbal score of 1 indicates:
A. No response.
B. Inappropriate words.
C. Incomprehensible sounds.
D. Disoriented response.
Ans. A
Q 220. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of:
A. Buccal mucosa.
B. Lip.
C. Tongue.
D. Palate.
Ans. B
Q 221. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?
A. Adenocarcinoma.
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
C. Basal cell Adenoma.
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
Ans. B
Q 222. In which one of the following conditions the sialography is contraindicated?
A. Ductal calculus.
B. Chronic parotitis.
C. Acute parotitis.
D. Recurrrent sialadenitis.
Ans. C
Q 223. The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is:
A. Sphenoid sinus.
B. Frontal sinus.
C. Cribriform plate.
D. Tegmen tympani.
Ans. C
Q 224. Which one of the following soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes?
A. Fibrosarcoma.
B. Osteosarcoma.
C. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma.
D. Alveolar soft part sarcoma.
Ans. C
Q 225. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of :
A. Intermittent claudication.
B. Distal ischaemia affecting the SKIN of the toes.
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Back pain.
Ans. B
Q 226. A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following:
A. Breast abscess.
B. Fibroadenoma.
C. Duct papilloma.
D. Fat necrosis of breast.
Ans. C
Q 227. The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is:
A. Ipsilateral papillary dilatation.
B. Contralateral papillary dilatation.
C. Altered mental status.
D. Hemiparesis.
Ans. A
Q 228. In which of the following conditions splenectomy is not useful?
A. Hereditary spherocytosis.
B. Porphyria.
C. Thalassemia.
D. Sickle cell disease with large spleen .
Ans. None/B
Q 229. The following is ideal for the treatment with injection of sclerosing agents:
A. External hemorrhoids.
B. Internal hemorrhoids.
C. Prolapsed hemorrhoids.
D. Strangulated hemorrhoids.
Ans. B
Q 230. In which of the following locations, carcinoid tumor is most common?
A. Esophagus.
B. Stomach.
C. Small bowel.
D. Appendix.
Ans. C
Q 231. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochromocytoma may be associated with:
A. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
B. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid.
C. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid.
D. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid.
Ans. A
Q 232. Gardener’s syndrome is a rare herediatary disorder involving the colon. It is characterized by:
A. Polyposis colon, cancer thyroid, SKIN tumours.
B. Polyposis in jejunum, pituitary adenoma and SKIN tumours.
C. Polyposis colon, osteomas, epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumorus in the SKIN .
D. Polyposis of gastrointestinal tract, cholangiocarcinoma and SKIN tumours.
Ans. C
Q 233. All of the following are true for patients of ulcerative colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), except:
A. They may develop biliary cirrhosis.
B. May have raised alkaline phosphatase.
C. Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma.
D. PSC reverts after a total colectomy.
Ans. D
Q 234. The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is:
A. Oesophagitis.
B. Aspiration pneumonitis.
C. Volvulus.
D. Esophageal stricture.
Ans. A
Q 235. Patients of rectovaginal fistula should be initially treated with:
A. Colostomy.
B. Primary repair.
C. Colporrhaphy.
D. Anterior resection.
Ans. A
Q 236. Which of the following catheter materials is most suited for long-term use is?
A. Latex.
B. Silicone.
C. Rubber.
D. Polyurethane.
Ans. D
Q 237. Which of the following is the most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy?
A. Dorsal venous complex.
B. Inferior vesical pedicle.
C. Superior vesical pedicle.
D. Seminal vesicular artery.
Ans. A
Q 238. The most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosing ureteric stones in a patient with acute colic is:
A. X-ray KUB region.
B. Ultrasonogram.
C. Non contrast CT scan of the abdomen.
D. Contrast enhanced CT scan of the abdomen.
Ans. C
Q 239. Which one of the following is not used as a tumor marker in testicular tumors?
A. AFP.
B. LDH.
C. HCG.
D. CEA.
Ans. D
ORTHPAEDICS
Q 240. A young woman met with an accident and had mild quadriparesis. Her lateral X-ray cervical spine revealed C5-C6 FRACTURE dislocation. Which of the following is the best line of management?
A. Immediate anterior decompression.
B. Cervical traction followed by instrument fixation.
C. Hard cervical collar and bed rest cervical laminectomy.
D. Cervical laminectomy.
Ans. B
Q 241. Which one of the following is the investigation of choice for evaluation of suspected Perthes’ disease?
A. Plain X-ray.
B. Ultrasonography (US).
C. Computed tomography (CT).
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Ans. D
Q 242. Neuronal degeneration is seen in all of the following except:
A. Crush nerve injury.
B. Fetal development.
C. Senescence.
D. Neuropraxia.
Ans. D
Q 243. In Klippel-Feil syndrome, the patient has all of the following clinical features except:
A. Low hair line.
B. Bilateral neck webbing.
C. Bilateral shortness of sternomastoid muscles.
D. Gross limitations of neck movements.
Ans. C
Q 244. The most common sequelae of tuberculous spondylitis in an adolescent is:
A. Fibrous ankylosis.
B. Bony ankylosis.
C. Pathological dislocation.
D. Chronic OSTEOMYELITIS .
Ans. B
Q 245. In radionuclide imaging the most useful radio- pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is:
A. Gallium 67 (67Ga).
B. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc).
C. Technetium-99m (99mTc).
D. Technetium-99m linked to methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP).
Ans. D
Q 246. Heberden’s arthropathy affects:
A. Lumbar spine.
B. Symmetrically large joints.
C. Sacroiliac joints.
D. Distal interphalangeal joints.
Ans. D
Q 247. Subtrochanteric fractures of femur can be treated by all of the following methods except:
A. Skeletal traction on Thomas’ splint.
B. Smith Petersen nail.
C. Condylar blade plate.
D. Ender’s nail.
Ans. B
Q 248. All of the following are true about FRACTURE of the atlas vertebra, except:
A. Jefferson FRACTURE is the most common type.
B. Quadriplegia is seen in 80% cases.
C. Atlantooccipal fusion may sometimes be needed.
D. CT scans should be done for diagnosis.
Ans. D
Q 249. A 30-year-old man had road traffic accident and sustained FRACTURE of femur. Two days later he developed sudden breathlessness. The most probable cause can be:
A. Pneumonia.
B. Congestive heart failure.
C. Bronchial asthma.
D. Fat embolism.
Ans. D
Q 250. A 45-year-old was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?
A. Primary osteoarthritis.
B. Avascular necrosis.
C. Tuberculosis.
D. Aluminum toxicity.
Ans. B
Q 251. All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic FRACTURE except:
A. Pubic rami.
2. Alae of ileum.
3. Acetabula.
4. Ischial tuberosities.
Ans. D
Anaesthesia
Q 252. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except:
A. In a difficult intubation.
B. In a cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
C. In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye Surgery .
D. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity.
Ans. D


Q 253. The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint Surgery in children except:
A. Ketamine.
B. Ondansetron.
C. Propofol.
D. Dexamethasone.
Ans. A
Q 254. Which one of the following anaesthetic agents causes a rise in the intracranial pressure:
A. Sevoflurane.
B. Thiopentone sodium.
C. Lignocaine.
D. Propofol.
Ans. A
Q 255. The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except:
A. Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV).
B. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV).
C. Pressure support ventilation (PSV).
D. Assist-control ventilation (ACV).
Ans. A
Q 256. A lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques Anaesthesia except:
A. General Anaesthesia .
B. Spinal Anaesthesia .
C. Caudal Anaesthesia .
D. Combined spinal epidural.
Ans. C
Q 257. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneonsly breathing infant during Anaesthesia is:
A. Jackson Rees modification of Ayres T piece.
B. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit.
C. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister.
D. Bains circuit.
Ans. A
Q 258. All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except:
A. Induction is slow.
B. Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchila secretions.
C. Cautery can not be used.
D. Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias.
Ans. D
Q 259. Which one of the following is the fastest acting inhalational agent?
A. Halothane.
B. Isoflurane.
C. Ether.
D. Sevoflurane.
Ans. D
Gynaecology AND OBSTETRICS
Q 260. Aspermia is the term used to describe:
A. Absence of semen.
B. Absence of sperm in ejaculate.
C. Absence of sperm motility.
D. Occurrence of abnormal sperm.
Ans. A
Q 261. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for trisomy 21 in fetus:
A. Echogenic foci in heart .
B. Hyperechogenic bowel.
C. Choroid plexus cysts.
D. Nuchal edema.
Ans. D
Q 262. The highest incidence of gestational trophoblastic disease is in:
A. Australia .
B. Asia.
C. North America.
D. Western Europe.
Ans. B
Q 263. The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:
A. Interspinous diameter.
B. Diagonal conjugate.
C. True conjugate.
D. Intertuberous diameter.
Ans. A
Q 264. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:
A. Choriocarcinoma.
B. Dysgerminoma.
C. Embryonal cell tumor.
D. Malignant teratoma.
Ans. B
Q 265. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:
A. Coarctation of aorta.
B. Fallot’s tetrology.
C. Ebstein’s anomaly.
D. Transposition of great arteries.
Ans. D
Q 266. Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:
A. IUCD.
B. Depo-provera.
C. Diaphragm.
D. Oral contraceptive pills.
Ans. C
Q 267. The karyotype of a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome is:
A. 46 XX.
B. 46 XY.
C. 47 XXY.
D. 45 XO.
Ans. B
Q 268. The following drug is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic pregnancy:
A. Methotrexate.
B. Misoprostol.
C. Actinomycin-D.
D. RU 486.
Ans. B
Q 269. The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is:
A. 8-10 weeks.
B. 10-12 weeks
C. 12-14 weeks.
D. 14-16 weeks.
Ans. B
Q 270. Which one of the follwing biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?
A. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein.
B. Amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein.
C. Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase.
D. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase.
Ans. C
Q 271. Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is:
A. 2.5 cm.
B. 3.0 cm.
C. 3.5 cm.
D. 4.0 cm.
Ans. A
Q 272. All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except:
A. Maternal obesity.
B. Prolonged pregnancy.
C. Previous large infant.
D. Short stature.
Ans. D
Q 273. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?
A. The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy.
B. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women.
C. Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants.
D. Folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural tube defect.
Ans. B
Q 274. All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation except:
A. Anemia.
B. Pregnancy induced hypertension.
C. Maternal heart disease.
D. Gestational diabetes.
Ans. D
Q 275. Misoprostal has been found to be effective in all of the following except:
A. Missed abortion.
B. Induction of labour.
C. Menorrhagia.
D. Prevention of post-partum hemorrhage (PPH).
Ans. C
Q 276. All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except:
A. Androgens.
B. Raloxifene.
C. Isoflavones.
D. Tibolone.
Ans. B
Q 277. In a case of dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised:
A. Serum HCG.
B. Serum alphafetoprotein.
C. Serum lactic dehydrogenase.
D. Serum inhibin.
Ans. C
Q 278. Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:
A. Hepatitis-B.
B. Cholera.
C. Rabies.
D. Yellow fever.
Ans. B/D
Q 279. The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea in India is:
A. Endometrial tuberculosis.
B. Premature ovarian failure.
C. Polycystic ovarian syndrome.
D. Sheehan’s syndrome.
Ans. A
Ophthalmology
Q 280. In von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome?
A. Optic radiation.
B. Optic tract.
C. Cerebellum.
D. Pulvinar.
Ans. C
Q 281. An 18 year old boy comes to the eye casualty with history of injury with a tennis ball. On examination there is no perforation but there is hyphaema. The most likely source of the blood is
A. Iris vessels.
B. Circulus iridis major.
C. Circulus iridis minor.
D. Short posterior ciliary vessels.
Ans. A
Q 282. A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Vitreous haemorrhage.
B. Optic atrophy.
C. Developmental cataract.
D. Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma.
Ans. A
Q 283. The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On computed tomography scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Congenital cataract.
B. Retinoblastaoma.
C. Endophthalmitis.
D. Coats’ disease.
Ans. B
Q 284. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the following except:
A. Keratoconus.
B. Herpes simplex keratitis.
C. Leprosy.
D. Neurofibromatosis.
Ans. B Q 285. Under the WHO ‘Vision 2020’ programme, the ‘SAFE’ strategy is adopted for which of the following

fmge 2004

ALL INDIA
PAPER 2004
SOLVED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Anatomy
Q 1. False statement regarding pudendal nerve is:
A. Both sensory and motor
B. Derived from S2,3,4 spinal nerve roots
C. Leaves pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen
D. It is the only somatic nerve to innervate the pelvic organs
Ans. C
Q 2. Wrong statement regarding the coronary artery is:
A. Left coronary artery is present in anterior interventricular groove
B. Usually 3 obtuse marginal arteries arise from left coronary artery
C. Posterior interventricular artery arises from right coronary artery
D. Left atrial artery is a branch of left coronary artery
Ans. B
Q 3. All are true statements regarding inguinal canal except:
A. Roof is formed by conjoint tendon
B. Deep inguinal ring is formed by transversus abdominis
C. Superficial inguinal ring is formed by external oblique muscle
D. Internal oblique forms anterior and posterior wall
Ans. B
Q 4. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of:
A. Left gastric
B. Coeliac trunk
C. Splenic
D. Gastroduodenal
Ans. D
Q 5. In FRACTURE of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears is due to lesion in the:
A. Trigeminal ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Lesser petrosal nerve
D. Greater petrosal nerve
Ans. D
Q 6. Motor supply to diaphragm is by:
A. Thoracodorsal nerve
B. Phrenic nerve
C. Intercostal nerves
D. Sympathetic nerves
Ans. B
Q 7. All of the following are supplied by facial nerve except:
A. Lacrimal gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Nasal glands
D. Parotid gland
Ans. D
Q 8. In left coronary artery thrombosis, area most likely to be involved is:
A. Anterior wall of right ventricle
B. Anterior wall of left ventricle
C. Anterior wall of right atrium
D. Inferior surface of right ventricle
Ans. B
Physiology
Q 9. Tidal volume is calculated by:
A. Inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume
B. Total lung capacity minus the residual volume
C. Functional residual capacity minus residual volume
D. Vital capacity minus expiratory reserve volumes
Ans. A
Q 10. Surfactant production in lungs starts at:
A. 28 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 34 weeks
D. 36 weeks
Ans. A
Q 11. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillock because:
A. It has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon
B. It is unmyelinated
C. Neurotransmitter release occurs here
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 12. Albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressure because it has:
A. High molecular weight, low concentration
B. Low molecular weight, low concentration
C. High molecular weight, high concentration
D. Low molecular weight, high concentration
Ans. D


Q 13. After 5 days of fasting a man undergoes oral GTT, true is all except:
A. GH levels are increased
B. Increased glucose tolerance
C. Decreased insulin levels
D. Glucagon levels are increased
Ans. B
Q 14. Metalloproteins help in jaundice by the following mechanism:
A. Increased glucoronyl transferase activity
B. Inhibit heme oxygenase
C. Decrease RBC lysis
D. Increase Y and Z receptors
Ans. B
Q 15. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and myosin:
A. Troponin
B. Calmodulin
C. Thymosin
D. Tropomyosin
Ans. D
Q 16. Which of the following is not correct regarding capillaries:
A. Greatest cross sectional area
B. Contain 25% of blood
C. Contains less blood than veins
D. Have single layer of cells bounding the lumen
Ans. B
Q 17. A 0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes will lead to:
A. Increase in HR, decrease in BP
B. Slight increase in HR, normal BP
C. Decrease in HR and BP
D. Prominent increase in HR
Ans. B
Q 18. Single most important factor in control of automatic contractility of heart is:
A. Myocardial wall thickness
B. Right atrial volume
C. SA node pacemaker potential
D. Sympathetic stimulation
Ans. D
Q 19. Which of the following is not mediated through negative FEEDBACK mechanism:
A. TSH release
B. GH formation
C. Thrombin formation
D. ACTH release
Ans. C
Q 20. Force generating proteins are:
A. Myosin and myoglobin
B. Dynein and kinesin
C. Calmodulin and G protein
D. Troponin
Ans. B
Q 21. Which is true about measurement of BP with sphygmomanometer versus intraarterial pressure measurements:
A. Less than intravascular pressure
B. More than intravascular pressure
C. Equal to intravascular pressure
D. Depends upon blood flow
Ans. B
Q 22. Secondary hyperparathyroidism due to vitamin D deficiency shows:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Ans. C
Q 23. Maximum absorption of water takes place in:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of Henle
Ans. A
Biochemistry
Q 24. Basic amino acids are:
A. Aspartate and glutamate
B. Serine and glycine
C. Lysine and arginine
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 25. Amino acid with dissociation constant closest to physiological pH is:
A. Serine
B. Histidine
C. Threonine
D. Proline
Ans. B
Q 26. Sources of the nitrogen in urea cycle are:
A. Aspartate and ammonia
B. glutamate and ammonia
C. Arginine and ammonia
D. Uric acid
Ans. A
Q 27. If urine sample darkens on standing: the most likely condition is:
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Maple syrup disease
D. Tyrosinemia
Ans. B
Q 28. A baby presents with refusal to feed, SKIN lesions, seizures, ketosis organic acids in urine with normal ammonia; likely diagnosis is:
A. Propionic aciduria
B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
Ans. B
Q 29. Force not acting in an enzyme substrate complex:
A. Electrostatic
B. Covalent
C. Van der Wall
D. Hydrogen
Ans. C
Q 30. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by:
A. Cyanide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Chocolate
D. Carbonated beverages
Ans. A
Q 31. Triple bonds are found between which base pairs:
A. A-T
B. C-G
C. A-G
D. C-T
Ans. B
Q 32. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases:
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. 16SRNA
Ans. A
Q 33. False regarding gout is:
A. Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
B. Due to increased metabolism of purines
C. Uric acid levels may not be elevated
D. Has a predilection for the great toe
Ans. A
Q 34. All of the following statements are true regarding lipoproteins except:
A. VLDL transports endogenous lipids
B. LDL transports lipids to the tissues.
C. Increased blood cholesterol is associated with increased LDL receptors
D. Increased HDL is associated with decreased risk of coronary disease
Ans. C
Q 35. A destitute woman is admitted to the hospital with altered sensorium and dehydration; urine analysis shows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be desirable:
A. Fouchet
B. Rothera
C. Hays
D. Benedict’s
Ans. B
Q 36. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk:
A. Linolaete
B. Linolenic
C. Palmitic
D. d-hexanoic
Ans. A
Q 37. Blood is not a newtonian fluid because:
A. Viscosity does not changing with velocity
B. Viscosity changes with velocity
C. Density does not change with velocity
D. Density changes with velocity
Ans. B
Microbiology
Q 38. Regarding NK cells, false statement is:
A. It is activated by IL-2
B. Expresses CD 3 receptor
C. It is a variant of large lymphocyte
D. There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells
Ans. D
Q 39. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in the following:
A. Common variable immunodeficiency.
B. Severe combined immunodeficiency
C. Chronic granulomatous disease
D. Nezelof syndrome
Ans. B
Q 40. A beta hemolytic bacteria is resistant to vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5% NaCI, is non-bile sensitive. It is likely to be:
A. Strep. agalactiae
B. Strep. pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus
D. Strep. bovis
Ans. C
Q 41. False statement about the streptococcus is:
A. M protein is responsible for production of mucoid colonies
B. M protein is the major surface protein of group A streptococci
C. Mucoid colonies are virulent
D. Endotoxin causes rash of scarlet fever
Ans. A
Q 42. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is:
A. Pyrogenic toxin
B. Erythrogenic toxin
C. Hemolysin
D. Neurotoxin
Ans. A
Q 43. A child presents with a white patch over the tonsils; diagnosis is best made by culture in:
A. Loeffler medium
B. LJ medium
C. Blood agar
D. Tellurite medium
Ans. A
Q 44. A patient with 14 days of fever is suspected of having typhoid. What investigation should be done:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
Ans. B
Q 45. All are true about EHEC except:
A. Sereny test is positive
B. Fails to ferment sorbitol
C. Causes HUS
D. Elaborates shiga like exotoxin
Ans. A
Q 46. An organism grown on agar shows green coloured colonies, likely organism is:
A. Staphylococcus
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas
D. Peptostreptococcus
Ans. C
Q 47. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by:
A. IgM FTAbs
B. IgG FTAbs
C. VDRL
D. TPI
Ans. A
Q 48. All are features of Ureaplasma urealyticum except:
A. Non gonococcal urethritis
B. Salpingitis
C. Epididymitis
D. Bacterial vaginosis
Ans. D
Q 49. Regarding HIV infection, not true is:
A. p24 is used for early diagnosis
B. Lysis of infected CD 4 cells is seen
C. Dendritic cells do not support replication
D. Macrophage is a reservoir for the virus
Ans. C
Q 50. A pregnant woman from Bihar presents with hepatic encephalopathy. The likely diagnosis:
A. Hepatitis E
B. Hepatitis B
C. Sepsis
D. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Ans. A
Q 51. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis is:
A. RSV
B. Rhinovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Rotavirus
Ans. C
Q 52. Cystine lactose enzyme deficient (CLED) medium is preferred over McConkey agar in UTI because:
A. Former prevents swarming of proteus
B. Is a selective medium
C. Prevents growth of pseudomonas
D. Promotes growth of candida
Ans. A
Q 53. In which stage of filariasis are microfilaria seen in peripheral blood:
A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early adenolymphangitis stage
C. Late adenolymphangitis stage
D. Elephantiasis
Ans. B
Q 54. Pancreatic CA is caused by:
A. Fasciola
B. Clonorchis
C. Paragonimus
D. None
Ans. B
Q 55. All of the following are true except:
A. E.coli is an aerobe and facultative anaerobe
B. Proteus forms uric acid stones
C. E. coli is motile by peritrichate flagella
D. Proteus causes deamination of phenylalanine to phenylpyruvic acid
Ans. B
Q 56. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following helminthic disease:
A. Tinea saginata
B. Tinea solium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Trichuris trichura
Ans. B
Pathology
Q 57. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is:
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. MAO
D. Hydroxylase
Ans. B
Q 58. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in:
A. ALL B. AML
C. CLL D. CML
Ans. C
Q 59. All of following are correct about thromboxane A2 except:
A. Low dose aspirin inhibits its synthesis
B. Causes vasoconstriction in blood vessels
C. Causes broncoconstriction
D. Secreted by WBC
Ans. D
Q 60. Which of the following complications is likely to result after several units of blood have been transfused:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Ans. A
Q 61. The mother has sickle cell disease and father is normal. Chances of children having sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait respectively are:
A. 0 and 100%
B. 25 and 25%
C. 50 and 50%
D. 10 and 50%
Ans. A
Q 62. Father has a blood group B, mother has AB; children are not likely to have the following blood group:
A. O
B. A
C. B
D. AB
Ans. A
Q 63. Protein involved in intercellular connections is:
A. Connexin
B. Integrin
C. Adhesin
D. None of the above
Ans. A

Pharmacology
Q 64. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly except:
A. They are lean and their body mass is less
B. Have decreasing renal function with age
C. Have increased baroceptor sensitivity
D. Body water is decreased
Ans. C
Q 65. True statement regarding inverse agonists is:
A. Binds to receptor and causes intended action
B. Binds to receptor and causes opposite action
C. Binds to receptor and causes no action
D. Binds to receptor and causes submaximal action
Ans. B
Q 66. True statement regarding first order kinetics is:
A. Independent of plasma concentration
B. A constant proportion of plasma concentration is eliminated
C. T½ increases with dose
D. Clearance decreases with dose
Ans. B
Q 67. A diabetic female on INH and rifampicin for TB suffers DVT. She is started on warfarin. PT is not raised. Next step should be:
A. Long term heparin therapy
B. Replace warfarin with acecoumarin
C. Switch ethambutol for rifampin
D. Use LMW heparin
Ans. C
Q 68. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is:
A. Propranolol
B. Pindolol
C. Sotalol
D. Nadolol
Ans. A
Q 69. All of the following are correct about steroids except:
A. Inhibit the release of arachidonic acid from vessel wall through action of phospholipase A2
B. Bind plasma membrane receptors and following internalization influence nuclear changes
C. Inhibit vascular membrane permeability
D. Increase glucose synthesis, glycogen deposition in liver
Ans. B
Q 70. All of the following statements are true except:
A. PGs and leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid
B. COX I is an inducible enzyme
C. COX II is induced by cytokines at sites of inflammation.
D. Leukotrienes cause smooth muscle constriction
Ans. B
Q 71. Which of the following is a false statement:
A. IV noradrenaline increases systolic and diastolic BP and cause tachycardia
B. IV adrenaline increases systolic BP, no change or increase diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
C. IV isoproterenol causes increase in systolic BP, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
D. Dopamine improves renal function, increases cardiac output and systolic BP
Ans. A
Q 72. Digoxin is not indicated in:
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. High output failure
D. PSVT
Ans. C
Q 73. All of the following statements are true about theophylline except:
A. Increase in dose is required in cardiopulmonary disease
B. Increases cAMP
C. Increase in dose is required in smokers
D. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
Ans. A
Q 74. Mechanism of action of tetracycline is:
A. Binds to A site and inhibit attachment of t-RNA.
B. Inhibits peptidyl transferase
C. Causes misreading of mRNA
D. Causes termination of peptide chain elongation
Ans. A
Q 75. False statement about selegeline is:
A. It is a MAO-A inhibitor
B. Does not cause cheese reaction
C. Not useful in advanced cases of on-off phenomenon
D. It is used in parkinsonism
Ans. A
Q 76. A patient on phenytoin for treatment of seizures develops depression for which he is prescribed tricyclics. He now complains of lassitude and his Hb reads 8. Next step in managing this patient should be:
A. Chest X-ray
B. MCV should be estimated
C. GGT should be estimated
D. Bone marrow examination
Ans. B
Q 77. Which of the following drugs would be removed by dialysis?
A. Digoxin
B. Salicylates
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Organophosphates
Ans. B
Q 78. In low doses aspirin acts on:
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Thromboxane A2
C. PGI2
D. Lipoxygenase
Ans. B
Q 79. True statement about ticlopidine is:
A. Directly interacts with platelet membrane
B. Onset of action is delayed
C. Inhibits platelet gp IIb/IIIa receptors
D. Has fibrinolytic activity
Ans. A
Q 80. All of the following statements about methotrexate are true except:
A. Folinic acid enhances the action of methotrexate
B. Methotrexate inhibit dehydrofolate reductase
C. Non proliferative cells are resistant to metho- trexate
D. Methotrexate is used in treatment of PSORIASIS
Ans. A
Q 81. Drug containing two sulfhydryl groups in a molecule:
A. BAL
B. EDTA
C. Pencillamine
D. Desferioxamine
Ans. A
Forensic Medicine
Q 82. Gettler’s test is done for death by:
A. Drowning B. Hanging
C. Bums D. Phophorus poisoning
Ans. A

Q 83. Feature indicative of antimortem drowning is:
A. Cutis anserina
B. Rigor mortis
C. Washer woman’s feet
D. Grass and weeds grasped in the hand
Ans. D
Q 84. A boy has 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary teeth. His age is likely to be:
A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years
Ans. C
Q 85. A patient has sensation of bugs crawling all over his body. This may be effect of:
A. Cocaine
B. Alcohol
C. Cannabis
D. Benzodiazepines
Ans. A
Q 86. A person comes in contact with other. This is called:
A. Locard principle
B. Quetlet’s rule
C. Petty’s principle
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 87. A patient of head injury, has no relatives and requires urgent cranial decompression; Doctor should:
A. Operate without formal consent
B. Take police consent
C. Wait for relatives to take consent
D. Take magistrate consent
Ans. A
Q 88. A boy attempts suicide. He is brought to a private doctor and he is successfully cured. Doctor should:
A. Inform police
B. Not required to inform police
C. Report to magistrate
D. Refer to a psychiatrist
Ans. B
PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL Medicine
Q 89. All are true about DOTS except:
A. Continuation phase drugs are given in a multi- blister combipack
B. Medication is to be taken in presence of a health worker
C. Alternate day treatment
D. Improves compliance
Ans. C
Q 90. Basanti a 29 years aged female from Bihar presents with active tuberculosis. She delivers baby. All of the following are indicated except:
A. Administer INH to the baby
B. Withhold breastfeeding
C. Give ATT to mother for 2 years
D. Ask mother to ensure proper disposal of sputum
Ans. B
Q 91. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHC-R, requisite is:
A. Microscopy
B. Microscopy plus Radiology
C. Radiology
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 92. A person has received complete immunization against tetanus 10 years ago, now he presents with a clean wound without any lacerations from an injury sustained 3 hours ago. He should now be given:
A. Full course of tetanus toxoid
B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid
C. Human tetanus globulin
D. Human tetanus globulin and single dose of toxoid
Ans. B
Q 93. The false statement regarding tetanus is:
A. Five doses of immunisation provide life long immunity
B. TT affords no protection in the present injury
C. TIG is useful in lacerated wound
D. TT and Ig both may be given in suspected tetanus
Ans. A
Q 94. A certain community has 100 children out of whom 28 are immunised against measles. 2 of them acquired measles simultaneously. Subsequently 14 get measles. Assuming the efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is the secondary attack rate?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 21.5%
Ans. C
Q 95. A community has a population of 10,000 and a birth rate of 36 per 1000. 5 maternal deaths were reported in the current year. The MMR is:
A. 14.5
B. 13.8
C. 20
D. 5
Ans. B
Q 96. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weigh 2.8 kg each. Calculate the standard deviation:
A. Zero
B. One
C. Minus one
D. 0.28
Ans. A
Q 97. Out of 11 births in a hospital, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 5 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5 represent:
A. Geometric average
B. Arithmetic average
C. Median
D. Mode
Ans. C
Q 98. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein and 35 gms fat in his diet. The most applicable statement here is:
A. His total calorie intake is 3000 kcal
B. The proportion of proteins, fats and carbohydrates is correct and in accordance with a balanced diet
C. He has a negative nitrogen balance
D. 30% of his total energy intake is derived from fat
Ans. B
Q 99. A country has a population of 1000 million; birth rate is 23 and death rate is 6. In which phase of the demographic cycle does this country lie:
A. Early expanding
B. Late expanding
C. Plateau
D. Declining
Ans. B
Q 100. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; it was not given to the remainder. 3 out of the first group got lung cancer while 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung cancer. The best conclusion is:
A. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to one another
B. The p value is not significant
C. The study is not designed properly
D. Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
Ans. A
Q 101. A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of:
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 5000
Ans. C
Q 102. In a community, an increase in new cases denotes:
A. Increase in incidence rate
B. Increase in prevalence rate
C. Decrease in incidence rate
D. Decrease in prevalence rate
Ans. A
Q 103. More false positive cases on screening in a community signify that the disease has:
A. High prevalence
B. High sensitivity
C. Low prevalence
D. Low sensitivity
Ans. C
Q 104. The same screening test is applied to two communities X and Y; Y shows more false +ve cases as compared to X. The possibility is:
A. High sensitivity
B. High specificity
C. Y community has high prevalence
D. Y community has low prevalence
Ans. C
Q 105. ELISA is performed on a population with low prevalence of hepatitis B. What would be the result of performing double screening ELISA tests?
A. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value
B. Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
C. Increased specificity and positive predictive value
D. Increased specificity and negative predictive value
Ans. C
Q 106. While testing a hypolipidemic drug, serum lipid levels were tested both before and after its use. Which test is best suited for the statistical analysis of the result:
A. Paired t-test
B. Student’s test
C. Chi square test
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 107. Type 1 sampling error is classified as:
A. Alpha error
B. Beta error
C. Gamma error
D. Delta error
Ans. A
Q 108. Virulence of a disease is indicated by:
A. Proportional mortality rate
B. Specific mortality rate
C. Case fatality ratio
D. Amount of GDP spent on control of disease
Ans. C
Q 109. Which of the following diseases needs not to be screened for in workers to be employed in a dye industry in Gujarat ?
A. Anemia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bladder cancer
D. Precancerous lesion
Ans. A
Q 110. Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is:
A. Serum transferrin
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum iron
D. Hemoglobin
Ans. B
Q 111. Which of the following is not a complete sterilization agent:
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Absolute alcohol
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Sodium hypochlorite
Ans. B
Q 112. Seasonal trend is due to:
A. Vector variation
B. Environmental factors
C. Change in herd immunity
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Medicine
Q 113. False statement about type I respiratory failure is:
A. Decreased PaO2
B. Decreased PaCO2
C. Normal PaCO2
D. Normal A-a gradient
Ans. D
Q 114. A 60 years old man presents with nonproductive cough for 4 weeks. He has grade III clubbing, and a lesion in the apical lobe on X-ray. Most likely diagnosis here is:
A. Small cell CA
B. Non-small cell CA
C. Fungal infection
D. Tuberculosis
Ans. B
Q 115. A 60 years old man is suspected of having bronchogenic CA. TB has been ruled out in this patient. What should be the next investigation:
A. CT guided FNAC
B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
C. Sputum cytology
D. X-ray chest
Ans. B
Q 116. A man presents with fever, weight loss and cough. Mantoux reads an induration of 17 × 19 mm; sputum cytology is negative for AFB. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Fungal infection
C. Viral infection
D. Pneumonia
Ans. A
Q 117. Pulmonary edema associated with normal PCWP is observed, which of these is not a cause:
A. High altitude
B. Cocaine overdose
C. Post cardiopulmonary bypass
D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Ans. D
Q 118. An ABG analysis shows: pH 7.2, raised pCO2, decreased HCO3. Diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Ans. C
Q 119. ABG analysis of a patient on ventilator shows decreased pCO2, normal pO2, pH 7.5. Diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Ans. C
Q 120. In a patient of acute inferior wall MI. Best modality of treatment is:
A. IV fluids
B. Digoxin
C. Diuretics
D. Vasodilators
Ans. A
Q 121. A 26 years old asymptomatic woman is found to have arrhythmias and a systolic murmur associated with midsystolic ? . Which investigation would you use:
A. Electrophysiological testing
B. CT scan
C. Echocardiography
D. Angiography
Ans. C
Q 122. A patient complains of intermittent claudication, dizziness and headache. Most likely cardiac lesion is:
A. TOF
B. ASD
C. PDA
D. Coarctation of aorta
Ans. D
Q 123. All of the following are true about ASD except:
A. Right atrial hypertrophy
B. Left atrial hypertrophy
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Pulmonary hypertension
Ans. B
Q 124. Mitral valve vegetations do not usually embolise to:
A. Lung
B. liver
C. spleen
D. brain
Ans. A
Q 125. A woman has septic abortion done, vegetation on tricuspid valve is likely to go to:
A. Septic infarcts to lung
B. liver
C. spleen infarcts
D. Emboli to brain
Ans. A
Q 126. Kussmaul’s sign is not seen in:
A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. RV infarct
Ans. C
Q 127. A patient presents with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 mmHg and pulse rate of 100/min following blunt trauma to the chest. Diagnosis is:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Hemothorax
Ans. C
Q 128. Which of the following is not seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in sickle cell anemia:
A. HbA
B. HbA2
C. HbF
D. HbS
Ans. A
Q 129. False statement regarding DIC is:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Decreased fibrinogen
C. Decreased PTT
D. Increased PT
Ans. C
Q 130. Thrombocytopenia occurs in all except:
A. Henoch Schonlein purpura
B. TTP
C. DIC
D. Leukemia
Ans. A
Q 131. A patient with an Hb of 6 g%, WBC count of 2000/cmm, has a normal different count except for having 6% blasts, platelets are reduced to 80,000/cmm; moderate splenomegaly is present. Possible diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. HEMOLYSIS
D. lTP
Ans. A
Q 132. A patient being investigated for anemia has a dry marrow tap; peripheral smear reveals tear drop cells. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Myelofibrosis
D. Polycythemia rubra vera
Ans. C
Q 133. Tumor associated with polycythemia vera is:
A. Sarcoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 134. A young patient presents with jaundice. Total bilirubin is 21 mg%, direct is 9.6 mg%, alkaline phosphatase is 84 KA units. Diagnosis is:
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Chronic active hepatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
Ans. D
Q 135. A young male with gallbladder stones shows the following test results: serum bilirubin 2.5 mg%, Hb 6 g%, urine test positive for urobilinogen. Diagnosis is:
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Hepatocellular jaundice
D. Protoporphyria
Ans. A
Q 136. An 18 years old male presents with massive hematemesis. He has history of fever for the past 14 days for which he was managed with drugs. Moderate splenomegaly is present. Diagnosis is:
A. NSAID induced duodenal ulcer
B. Drug induced gastritis
C. Esophageal varices
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 137. Urinalysis shows RBC casts. Likely source is:
A. kidney
B. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
Ans. A
Q 138. A young man develops gross hematuria 3 days after an attack of URTI. Most likely renal Pathology is:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Minimal change disease
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
Ans. C
Q 139. A patient’s CSF report reads as follows: sugar 40 mg%, protein 150 mg%, chloride 550 mg%; lymphocytosis present. The picture is suggestive of:
A. Fungal meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. TB meningitis
D. Leukemia
Ans. C
Q 140. Lacunar infarcts are caused by:
A. Lipohyalinosis of penetrating arteries
B. Middle carotid artery involvement
C. Emboli to anterior circulation
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 141. Dinesh, a 56 years aged man presents with complaints of slowness of movements, postural instability, tremors, rigidity and memory loss. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Multi-infarct dementia
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Parkinsonism
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 142. All of the following may be seen in Wilson’s disease except:
A. Cerebellar ataxia
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Dysphagia
D. Chorea
Ans. B
Q 143. An elderly man presents with features of dementia, ataxia, difficulty in downward gaze and a history of frequent falls. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Parkinson disease
B. Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. None of the above.
Ans. B
Q 144. A chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s dementia is:
A. Trisomy 18
B. Patau syndrome
C. Trisomy 21
D. Turner syndrome
Ans. C
Q 145. All are true about Huntington’s disease, except:
A. Chorea
B. Depression, apathy
C. Progressive dementia
D. Cog-wheel rigidity
Ans. D
Q 146. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection; he has low testosterone and high prolactin level in blood. What is the likely diagnosis:
A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Testicular failure
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Ans. A
Q 147. A patient meets with an accident with resultant transection of the pituitary stalk. What will not occur:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperprolactinemia
D. Hypothyroidism
Ans. A
Q 148. A woman has bilateral headache that worsens with emotional stress. She has two children, both doing badly in school. Diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Cluster headache
C. Tension headache
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Ans. C
Q 149. A female aged 30 years, presents with episodic throbbing headache for past 4 years with nausea and vomiting. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Cluster headache
C. Angle closure glaucoma
D. Temporal arteritis
Ans. A
Q 150. A woman complains of headache associated with paresthesias of the right upper and lower limb. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Migraine
D. Cluster headache
Ans. C
Q 151. All of the following are features of MEN IIa, except:
A. Pituitary tumor
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Medullary CA thyroid
D. Parathyroid adenoma
Ans. A
Q 152. A patient with Cushingoid features presents with hemoptysis. He shows no response to dexamethasone suppression test. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. CA lung with ectopic ACTH production
D. Pituitary microadenoma
Ans. C
Q 153. An obese patient presented in casualty in an unconscious state. His blood sugar measured 400 mg%, urine tested positive for sugar and ketones. Drug most useful in management is:
A. Glibenclamide
B. Troglitazone
C. Insulin
D. Chlorpropamide
Ans. C
Q 154. Which of the following is not associated with thymoma:
A. Red cell aplasia
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Hypergammaglobulinemia
D. Compression of the superior mediastinum
Ans. C
Q 155. A young basketball player with height 188 cm and arm span 197 cm has a diastolic murmur best heard in second right intercostal space. Likely cause of murmur is:
A. AS
B. Coarctation of aorta
C. AR
D. MR
Ans. C
Q 156. A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmen- tation of SKIN and hypogonadism. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor of lung
C. Wilson’s disease
D. Rheumatoid arthrits
Ans. A
Q 157. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement regarding thymectomy is:
A. Should be done in all cases
B. Should be done in cases with ocular involvement only
C. Not required if controlled by medical management
D. Should be done only in cases that are associated with thymoma
Ans. A
Q 158. Most common fungal infection in febrile neutropenia is:
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Candida
C. Mucormycosis
D. Aspergillus fumigatus
Ans. B
Q 159. The following group of tests should be done to optimise graft uptake in bone marrow transplant:
A. Blood grouping
B. HLA matching
C. Culture for infection
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Q 160. True statement about neurocysticercosis is:
A. Seizures due to neurocysticercosis are resistant to antiepileptic drugs
B. Albendazole is superior to praziquantel in the treatment of above condition
C. Common presentation is 6th cranial nerve palsy and hemiparesis
D. Steroids are used in the management of hydrocephalus
Ans. B
Q 161. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic disease except:
A. Misoprostol is the drug of choice in patients on NSAIDs
B. DU is preventable by the use of single night-time H2 blockers
C. Omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2 blockers
D. Misoprostol is DOC in pregnant patients
Ans. D
Q 162. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexure invading renal papillae. Histopathology reports it as lymphoma. True statement is:
A. II E stage
B. III E stage
C. IV E stage
D. Staging cannot be done until bone marrow examination is performed
Ans. C
Q 163. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He has sudden abnormal flinging movements in right upper and lower limbs. Most likely site of hemorrahge is:
A. Substantia nigra
B. Caudate nuclei
C. Pons
D. Subthalamic nuclei
Ans. D
Q 164. True about haemophilia A are all except:
A. PTT increased
B. PT increased
C. Clotting time is increased
D. Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
Ans. B
Q 165. IPPV can cause:
A. Barotrauma
B. Pleural effusion
C. Increased venous return
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 166. Characteristic finding in CT in a TB is:
A. Exudate seen in basal cistern
B. Hydrocephalus is non communicating
C. Calcification commonly seen in cerebellum
D. Ventriculitis is a common finding
Ans. A

Q 167. Vegetations on undersurface of AV valves are found in:
A. Acute rheumatic carditis
B. Limban Sack’s endocarditis
C. Non thrombotic bacterial endocarditis
D. Chronic rheumatic carditis
Ans. B
Q 168. Triage means:
A. Sorting out of cases on availability of medical resources and severity of patient’s condition
B. Patients are divided into 3 groups
C. Severely injured patients are attended first in military camps
D. None of the above
Ans. A
PEDIATRICS
Q 169. Which of the following is not true about atrial septal defect:
A. There is a defect in region of fossa ovalis
B. Blood flow from left atrium to right atrium
C. Increased blood flow through lungs lead to pulmonary plethora
D. There is splitting of first heart sound
Ans. D
Q 170. A neonate presents with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy giant cells are seen. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Physiological jaundice
B. Neonatal hepatitis with extra biliary atresia
C. Neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
D. Extra biliary atresia
Ans. B
Q 171. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and froth at the mouth. Diagnosis is:
A. Tracheoesophageal fistula
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Respiratory distress syndrome
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 172. Ramu, a 8-years-old boy presents with upper GI bleeding. On examination, he is found to have splenomegaly; there are no signs of ascites, or hepatomegaly; esophageal varices are found on UGIE. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Budd Chiari syndrome
B. Non cirrhotic portal fibrosis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Veno-occlusive disease
Ans. B
Q 173. A 5-years-old child suffering from nephrotic syndrome is responding well to steroid therapy. What would be the most likely finding on light microscopy:
A. No finding
B. Basement membrane thickening
C. Hypercellular glomeruli
D. Fusion of foot processes
Ans. A
Q 174. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a male infant is:
A. Anterior urethral valves
B. Posterior urethral valves
C. Stone
D. Stricture
Ans. B
Q 175. A 5-years-old child presents with a calculus of size 2 cm in the upper ureter. He also complains of haematuria. USG shows no further obstruction in the urinary tract. Treatment of choice for this patient would be:
A. Ureterolithotomy
B. Endoscopic removal
C. ESWL
D. Observation
Ans. C
Q 176. A patient presents with LVH and pulmonary complications. ECG shows left axis deviation. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. TOF
B. Tricuspid atresia
C. TAPVC
D. VSD
Ans. B
Q 177. Potts shunt is anastomosis of:
A. Right subclavian artery to right pulmonary artery
B. Descending aorta to left pulmonary artery
C. Left subclavian to left pulmonary artery
D. Ascending aorta to right pulmonary artery
Ans. B
Q 178. A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restless, irritability and diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a nonspecific murmur. He is believed to be at risk for MI. Likely diagnosis is:
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. TOF
D. Anomalous coronary artery
Ans. D
Q 179. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of anemia. On peripheral blood smear target cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcytic picture and Hb of 6 gm%. He also has ‘a positive family history’. Next investigation of choice is:
A. Hb electrophoresis
B. Coombs’ test
C. liver function tests
D. Osmotic fragility test
Ans. A
Q 180. Most common cause of meningitis in children between 6 months to 2 years of age is:
A. Pneumococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. H. influenzae
D. E. coli
Ans. C
Q 181. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, lytic skull lesions, ear discharge and hepatosplenomegaly. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Histiocytosis X
D. Multiple myeloma
Ans. C
Q 182. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism:
A. Short limbs compared to trunk
B. Proportionate shortening
C. Short limbs and short stature
D. Short limbs and long stature
Ans. C
Q 183. Manifestations of endemic cretinism include:
A. Deafness and facial nerve involvement
B. Blindness and hypothyroidism
C. Goitre and hypothyroidism
D. Multinodular goitre and mental retardation
Ans. A
Q 184. A 10 day old male pseudohermaphrodite child with 46 XY karyotype presents with BP of 110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme deficiency is:
A. 21 hydroxylase
B. 17 hydroxylase
C. 11 hydroxylase
D. 3-beta hydroxylase
Ans. B
Q 185. Treatment of Kawasaki disease in children is:
A. Oral steroids
B. IV steroids
C. IV Ig
D. Mycophenolate mefentil
Ans. C
Q 186. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, is put on a ventilator. X-ray shows ‘white out lung’ and ABG reveals PO2 of 75. Ventilator settings are on, FIO2 of 70, and rate of 50/minute. Next step to be taken should be:
A. Increase rate to 60 per minute
B. Increase FIO2 to 80
C. Continue ventilation with the same settings
D. Weaning ventilator
Ans. C
Dermatology
Q 187. A man aged 50 years presents with, alopecia, boggy scalp swelling and easily pluckable hair. Next step in establishing the diagnosis would be:
A. KOH smear
B. Culture sensitivity
C. Biopsy
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 188. Most common organism causing tinea capitis is:
A. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Microsporum
C. Epidermophyton
D. Candida albicans
Ans. A
Q 189. A young man aged 19 years develops a painless penile ulcer 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professional SEX worker. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chancroid
B. Herpes
C. Primary chancre
D. Traumatic ulcer
Ans. C
Q 190. An infant presents with itchy lesions over the groin and prepuce. All of the following are indicated in this patient except:
A. Bathe and apply scabicidal solution
B. Treatment should be extended to all family members
C. Dispose all clothes by burning
D. Start the patient on IV antibiotics
Ans. D
Q 191. A boy aged 8 years from Tamil Nadu presents with a white, non anesthetic, nonscaly, hypopigmented macule on his face. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis alba
B. Pityriasis versicolor
C. Indeterminate leprosy
D. Pure neuritic leprosy
Ans. C
Q 192. A 20 years old, male patient, from jaipur presents with an erythematous lesion on the cheek with central crusting. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. SLE
B. LUPUS vulgaris
C. Chillblains
D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Ans. D
Q 193. A 19 year old pregnant girl presents with light brown pigmentation over the malar eminences. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chloasma
B. SLE
C. Melasma
D. Melanoma
Ans. A
Q 194. A girl aged 19, presents with arthritis and a photosensitive rash on the cheek. Likely diagnosis is:
A. SLE
B. Chloasma
C. Stevens Johnson syndrome
D. Lyme’s disease
Ans. A
Psychiatry
Q 195. A patient with pneumonia for 5 days is admitted to the hospital. He suddenly ceases to recognize the doctor and staff, thinks that he is in jail and complains of scorpions attacking him. He is in altered sensorium. This condition is:
A. Acute delirium
B. Acute dementia
C. Acute schizophrenia
D. Acute paranoia
Ans. A
Q 196. A person missing from home, is found wandering purposefully. He is well groomed, and denies of having any amnesia. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Dissociative fugue
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Schizophrenia
D. Dementia
Ans. A
Q 197. Babu, a 40 years aged male complains of sudden onset palpitations and apprehension. He is sweating for the last 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis is:
A. Hysteria
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Panic attack
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Ans. C
Q 198. A lady, while driving a car meets with an accident. She was admitted in an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged, she often gets up in night and feels terrified She is afraid to sit in a car again. The diagnosis is:
A. Panic disorder
B. Phobia
C. Conversion disorder
D. Post traumatic stress disorder
Ans. D
Q 199. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity. Diagnosis is:
A. Catatonic schizophrenia
B. Paranoid schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Simple schizophrenia
Ans. A
Q 200. Chandu, age 32 presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. He also complains of some psychiatric symptoms and visual hallucinations. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Intermittent porphyria
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hysteria
Ans. A
Q 201. Basanti 27 years aged, female thinks her nose is ugly; her idea is fixed and not shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home, she hides her face with a cloth. She visits a Surgeon. Next step would be:
A. Investigate and then operate
B. Refer to psychiatrist
C. Reassure the patient
D. Immediate operation
Ans. B
Surgery
Q 202. A male aged 60 years has foul breath. He regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Meckel’s diverticulum
C. Scleroderma
D. Achalasia cardia
Ans. A
Q 203. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is:
A. Upper third
B. Middle third
C. Lower third
D. Gastro-esophageal junction.
Ans. B
Q 204. What is true regarding congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
A. More common in girls
B. Hypochloremic alkalosis
C. Heller’s myotomy is the procedure of choice.
D. Most often manifests at birth
Ans. B
Q 205. Patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size. Procedure of choice is:
A. Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
B. Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
C. Highly selective vagotomy
D. Laparoscopic vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
Ans. A
Q 206. All are features of hyperplastic tuberculosis of gastrointestinal tract except:
A. Presents with a mass in RIF
B. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum
C. Most common site is ileocecal junction
D. ATT is the treatment of choice
Ans. D
Q 207. A 56 year old woman has not passed stools for the last 14 days. X-ray shows no air/fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is:
A. Paralytic ileus
B. Aganglionosis of the colon
C. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
D. Duodenal obstruction.
Ans. C
Q 208. A man aged 60 years has history of IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with abdominal pain and maroon stools. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute intestinal obstruction
B. Acute mesenteric ischemia
C. Peritonitis
D. Appendicitis
Ans. B
Q 209. True statement regarding ‘fistula in ano’ is:
A. Posterior fistulae have straight tracks
B. High fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence
C. High and low divisions are made in relation to the pelvic floor
D. Intersphincteric is the most common type
Ans. D
Q 210. In a 27 year old male most common cause of a colovesical fistula would be:
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. TB
D. Cancer colon
Ans. A
Q 211. Following trauma, a patient presents with a drop of blood at the tip of urinary meatus. He complains of inability to pass urine. Next step should be:
A. IVP should be done
B. MCU should be done
C. Catheterize, drain bladder and remove the catheter thereafter
D. Catheterize, drain bladder and retain the catheter thereafter
Ans. D
Q 212. Chandu, a 45 years male shows calcification on the right side of his abdomen in an AP view. In lateral view the calcification is seen to overlie the spine. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Gallstones
B. Calcified mesenteric nodes
C. Renal stones
D. Calcified rib
Ans. C
Q 213. CA prostate commonly metastasises to the vertebrae because:
A. Valveless communication exist with Batson’s prevertebral plexus
B. Via drainage to sacral lymph node
C. Of direct spread
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q 214. Following sexual intercourse, a person develops pain in the left testes that does not get relieved on elevation of scrotum. Diagnosis is:
A. Epididymo-orchitis
B. Torsion testis
C. Fournier’s gangrene
D. Tumor testes
Ans. B
Q 215. A testicular tumor in a man aged 60 years is most likely to be:
A. Germ cell tumor
B. Sertoli cell tumor
C. Teratocarcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Ans. D
Q 216. A patient presents with bilateral proptosis, heat intolerance and palpitations. Most unlikely diagnosis here would be:
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Diffuse thyroid igoitre
D. Reidel’s thyroiditis
Ans. D
Q 217. A patient with long standing multinodular goitre develops hoarseness of voice. Also, the swelling undergoes sudden increase in size. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Follicular CA
B. Papillary CA
C. Medullary CA
D. Anaplastic CA
Ans. A
Q 218. A patient presents with swelling in the neck following a thyroidectomy. What is the most likely resulting complication:
A. Respiratory obstruction
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
C. Hypovolemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Ans. A
Q 219. A patient on the same evening following thyroidectomy presents with a swelling in the neck and difficulty in breathing. Next management would be:
A. Open sutures immediately
B. Intubate oro-tracheally
C. Wait and watch
D. Administer oxygen by mask
Ans. A
Q 220. Patient presents with neck swelling and respiratory distress few hours after a thyroidectomy Surgery . Next management would be:
A. Open immediately
B. Tracheostomy
C. Wait and watch
D. Oxygen by mask
Ans. A
Q 221. A patient undergoes thyroid Surgery , following which he develops perioral tingling. Blood Ca2+ is 8.9 mEq. Next step is:
A. Vitamin D orally
B. Oral Ca2+ and vitamin D
C. Intravenous calcium gluconate and serial monitoring
D. Wait for Ca2+ to decrease to < 7.0 before taking further action
Ans. C
Q 222. A case of blunt trauma is brought to the emergency in a state of shock. He is not responding to IV crystalloids. Next step in his management would be:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Blood transfusion
C. Albumin transfusion
D. Abdominal compression
Ans. A
Q 223. Babu is brought to the emergency as a case of road- traffic accident. He is hypotensive. Most likely ruptured organ is:
A. spleen
B. Mesentery
C. kidney
D. Rectum
Ans. A
Q 224. A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following a head on collision road traffic accident. His BP is 90/60 mmHg. Tachycardia is present. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. EDH
B. SDH
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Intra-abdominal bleed
Ans. D
Q 225. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is:
A. Marjolin’s
B. Rodent
C. Melanoma
D. Curling’s
Ans. A
Q 226. An elderly man presents with history of abdominal pain. He is found to have a fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta. Likely cause is:
A. Trauma
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Right ventricular failure
D. Syphilitic aortitis
Ans. B
Q 227. All of the following are correct regarding AV fistula except:
A. Arterialization of the veins
B. Proximal compression causes increase in heart rate
C. Overgrowth of a limb
D. Causes LV enlargement and LV failure
Ans. B
Q 228. All of the following are correct about axillary vein thrombosis except:
A. May be caused by a cervical rib
B. Treated with IV anticoagulant
C. Embolectomy is done in all cases
D. May occur following excessive exercise
Ans. C
Q 229. A 80 year old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Treatment of choice is:
A. Hemimandibulectomy
B. Commando operation
C. Segmental mandiblectbmy
D. Marginal mandibulectomy
Ans. C
Q 230. Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27 year old male is:
A. Warthin’s tumor
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Haemangioma
Ans. B
Q 231. A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and mobile lump in the breast. Next investigation is:
A. FNAC
B. USG
C. Mammography
D. Excision biopsy
Ans. A
Q 232. A 45 years old man presents with progressive cervical lymph nodes enlargement since 3 month. Most diagnostic investigation is:
A. X-ray soft tissue
B. FNAC
C. Lymph node biopsy
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 233. All of the following are true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver except:
A. Equal incidence in males and females
B. Better prognosis than HCC
C. AFP levels always greater than > 1000
D. Occur in younger individuals
Ans. C
Q 234. A child presents with an expansible swelling on medial side of the nose . Likely diagnosis is:
A. Teratoma
B. Meningocele
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Lipoma
Ans. B
orthopaedics
Q 235. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, a patient develops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect fore arm. Nerve injured is:
A. Radial nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
Ans. B
Q 236. Babloo a 10 years old boy presents with FRACTURE of humerus. X-ray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper end. Likely condition is:
A. Unicameral bone cyst
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Ans. A
Q 237. A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3 years back. He now presents with valgus deformity in the elbow and paresthesias over the medial border of the hand. The injury is likely to have been:
A. Supracondylar FRACTURE humerus
B. Lateral condyle FRACTURE humerus
C. Medial condyle FRACTURE humerus
D. Posterior dislocation of the humerus
Ans. B
Q 238. A woman aged 60 years suffers a fall. Her lower limb is abducted and externally rotated. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Neck of femur FRACTURE
B. Intertrochanteric femur FRACTURE
C. Posterior dislocation of hip
D. Anterior dislocation of hip
Ans. D
Q 239. Triple arthrodesis involves:
A. Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
B. Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
C. Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 240. Babu a 19 years old male has a small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Osteoclastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Osteoid osteoma
Ans. D
Q 241. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is:
A. Femur, upper end
B. Femur, lower end
C. Tibia, upper end
D. Tibia, lower end
Ans. B
Q 242. Involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the carpometacarpal joint of base of thumb with sparing the wrist is seen in:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Pseudogout
Ans. B
Q 243. The pivot test is for:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial meniscus
D. Lateral meniscus
Ans. A
Q 244. Iliotibial band contracture following polio is likely to result in:
A. Extension at hip
B. Extension at knee
C. Flexion at hip and knee
D. Extension at hip and knee
Ans. C
Anaesthesia
Q 245. All of the following agents can be given for induction of Anaesthesia in children except:
A. Halothane
B. Servoflurane
C. Morphine
D. Nitrous oxide
Ans. C
Q 246. Anaesthetic agent of choice in renal failure is:
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Enflurane
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 247. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires general Anaesthesia for Surgery . Anaesthetic agent of choice is:
A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Isoflurane
Ans. D
Q 248. All of the following are true except:
A. Halothane is good as an analgesic agent
B. Halothane sensitises the heart to action of catacholamines
C. Halothane relaxes brochi & is preferred as anaesthetics
D. Halothane may cause liver cell necrosis
Ans. A
Ophthalmology
Q 249. A patient has a miotic pupil, IOP= 25, normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea and a shallow anterior chamber in fellow eye . Diagnosis is:
A. Acute anterior uveitis
B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
C. Acute open angle glaucoma
D. Senile cataract
Ans. A
Q 250. A woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in the evening, with nausea and vomiting, IOP is normal. Diagnosis is:
A. Incipient stage, glaucoma open angle
B. Prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma
C. Migraine
D. Raised ICT
Ans. B
Q 251. Babloo, a 5 years old child, presents with large cornea, lacrimation and photophobia. Diagnosis is:
A. Megalocornea
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Congenital cataract
D. Anterior uveitis
Ans. B
Q 252. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus causes all except:
A. Nummular keratitis
B. Vitreal haemorrhage
C. Uveitis
D. Cranial nerve palsies
Ans. B
Q 253. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in:
A. Marfan’s syndrome
B. Myaesthenia gravis
C. Myotonic dystrophy
D. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
Ans. A
Q 254. eye is deviated laterally and downwards and patient is unable to look up or medially. Likely nerve involved is:
A. Trochlear
B. Trigeminal
C. Oculomotor
D. Abducent
Ans. C
Q 255. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of:
A. Right frontal lobe
B. Right occipital lobe
C. Left occipital lobe
D. Left frontal lobe
Ans. A
Q 256. An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in one eye . Examination reveals cherry red spot. Diagnosis is:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Amaurosis fugax
D. Acute ischemic optic neuritis
Ans. B
Q 257. Which of following, is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination:
A. Microaneurysms
B. Retinal hemorrhages
C. Arteriolar dilatation
D. Neovascularisation
Ans. C
Q 258. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause:
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Heteronymous hemianopia
D. Centrocecal scotoma
Ans. D
Q 259. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
A. Decreased visual acuity
B. Decreased pupillary reflex
C. Abnormal electroretinogram
D. Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram
Ans. C
Q 260. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except:
A. Syphilis
B. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
C. Post papilledema optic neuritis
D. Traumatic injury to the optic nerve
Ans. D
ENT
Q 261. A 3 months old child presents with intermittent stridor. Most likely cause is:
A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
B. Laryngomalacia
C. Respiratory obstruction
D. Foreign body aspiration
Ans. B
Q 262. A patient presents with facial nerve palsy following head trauma with FRACTURE of the mastoid. Best intervention here is:
A. Immediate decompression
B. Wait and watch
C. Facial sling
D. Steroids
Ans. A
Q 263. A case of Bell’s palsy on steroids shows no improvement after 2 weeks. The next step in management should be:
A. Vasodilators and ACTH
B. Physiotherapy and electrical stimulation
C. Increase steroid dosage
D. Electrophysiological nerve testing
Ans. D
Q 264. Chandu a 15 years aged boy presents with unilateral nasal blockade, mass in the cheek and epistaxis. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Nasopharyngeal CA
B. Angiofibroma
C. Inverted papilloma
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 265. A 40 years old diabetic presents with blackish nasal discharge and a mass in the nose . Likely diagnosis is:
A. Mucormycosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Rhinosporiodosis
D. Histoplasmosis
Ans. A
Q 266. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is:
A. Supraglortic CA
B. CA glottis
C. CA nasopharynx
D. Subglottic CA
Ans. C
OBSTETRICS & Gynaecology
Q 267. Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome is associated with:
A. Ovarian agenesis
B. Absent fallopian tube
C. Vaginal atresia
D. Bicornuate uterus
Ans. C
Q 268. A patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Edward syndrome
D. Down syndrome
Ans. B
Q 269. A girl presents with primary amenorrhea, grade V thelarche, grade II pubarche, no axillary hair. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Testicular feminization
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Turner syndrome
D. Gonadal dysgenesis
Ans. A
Q 270. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks duration and lump in the right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice is:
A. USG abdomen
B. Laparoscopy
C. CT scan
D. Shielded X-ray
Ans. A
Q 271. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration lower abdominal pain, facial pallor, fainting and shock. Diagnosis is:
A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
B. Ruptured ecotopic pregnancy
C. Threatened abortion
D. Septic abortion
Ans. B
Q 272. A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents with mass abdomen. USG shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is:
A. Ovarian cyst
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Complete abortion
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 273. A 30 years old female, presents to the emergency with complaint of sudden severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. Mo

fmge 2003

ALL INDIA
PAPER 2003
SOLVED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS









ANATOMY
Q 1. The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is:
A. Absence of brachiocephalic trunk.
B. Left vertebral artery arising from the arch.
C. Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic trunk.
D. Presence of retroesophageal subclavian artery.
Ans. C
Q 2. The blood vessel related to the paraduodenal fossa is:
A. Gonadal vein
B. Superior mesenteric artery
C. Portal vein
D. Inferior mesenteric vein
Ans. D
Q 3. The nerve commonly damaged during McBurney’s incision is:
A. Subcostal
B. Iliohypogastric
C. 11th thoracic
D. 10th thoracic
Ans. B
Q 4. The lumbar region of the vertebral column permits all the following movements, except:
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Lateral flexion
D. Rotation
Ans. D
Q 5. All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except:
A. Mastoid process
B. Tubercles of humerus
C. Trochanter of femur
D. Condyles of tibia
Ans. D
Q 6. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone, except:
A. It is the strongest part of the bone.
B. It is the most vascular part of bone.
C. Growth activity is maximized here.
D. It is the region favouring hematogenous spread of infection.
Ans. A


Q 7. All of the following features can be observed after the injury to axillary nerve, except:
A. Loss of rounded contour of shoulder.
B. Loss of sensation along lateral side of upper arm.
C. Loss of overhead abduction.
D. Atrophy of deltoid muscle.
Ans. C
Q 8. All of the following muscles are grouped together as ‘muscles of mastication’, except:
A. Buccinator
B. Masseter
C. Temporalis
D. Pterygoids
Ans. A
Q 9. Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to involvement of the following nerve:
A. Subcostal
B. Iliohypogastric
C. Ilioinguinal
D. Genitofemoral
Ans. D
Q 10. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of the conducting system in the heart, except:
A. SA Node
B. AV Node
C. AV Bundle
D. Right bundle branch
Ans. D
Q 11. The cells belonging to the following type of epithelium are provided with extra reserve of cell membrane:
A. Transitional
B. Stratified squamous
C. Stratified cuboidal
D. Stratified columnar
Ans. A
Q 12. Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove:
A. Spares nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus
B. Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle
C. Leaves extension at elbow joint intact
D. Weakens pronation movement
Ans. C
Q 13. A 30 year old man came to the outpatient department because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it was found that his right eye, when at rest, was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are:
A. Medial rectus and superior division of oculomotor nerve
B. Inferior oblique and inferior division of oculomotor nerve
C. Lateral rectus and abducent nerve
D. Superior rectus and trochlear nerve
Ans. C
Q 14. In a patient with a tumour in superior mediastinum compressing the superior vena cava, all the following veins would serve as alternate pathways for the blood to return to the right atrium, except:
A. Lateral thoracic vein
B. Internal thoracic vein
C. Hemiazygos vein
D. Vertebral venous plexus
Ans. B
Q 15. The middle cardiac vein is located at the:
A. Anterior interventricular sulcus.
B. Posterior interventricular sulcus.
C. Posterior AV groove.
D. Anterior AV groove.
Ans. B
Q 16. Which of the following statements is true about the autonomic nervous system?
A. The sympathetic outflow from the CNS is through both the cranial nerves and the sympathetic chain.
B. The parasympathetic outflow from the CNS is through cranial nerves only.
C. The superior hypogastric plexus is located at the anterior aspect of the aortic bifurcation and fifth lumbar vertebra.
D. The superior hypogastric plexus contains sympathetic fibers only.
Ans. C
PHYSIOLOGY
Q 17. An increase in which of the following parameters will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the left:
A. Temperature
B. Partial pressure of CO2
C. 2,3 DPG concentration
D. Oxygen affinity of haemoglobin
Ans. D
Q 18. A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss (below the level of lesion) of:
A. Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side
B. Proprioception on the contralateral side
C. Pain sensation on the contralateral side
D. Proprioception on the ipsilateral side
Ans. C
Q 19. Two students, Vineet and Kamlesh were asked to demonstrate in dogs the role of sinus nerve in hypovolemic shock.Vineet severed the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure (MBP) was 85 mm Hg and Kamlesh cut the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure was 60 mm Hg. On cutting the sinus nerve:
A. Vineet recorded an increase in MBP but Kamlesh recorded a decrease in MBP.
B. Vineet recorded a decrease in MBP but Kamlesh recorded an increase in MBP.
C. Both recorded an increase in MBP.
D. Both recorded a decrease in MBP.
Ans. A
Q 20. As a part of space-research program, a physiologist was asked to investigate the effect of flight-induced stress on blood pressure. Accordingly the blood pressure of the cosmonauts were to be measured twice: once before the take-off, and once after the spacecraft entered the designated orbit around the earth. For a proper comparison, the preflight blood pressure should be recorded in:
A. The lying down position.
B. The sitting position.
C. The standing position
D. Any position, as long as the post-flight recording is made in the same position.
Ans. A
Q 21. The renal plasma flow (RPF) of a patient was to be estimated through the measurement of Para Amino Hippuric acid (PAH) clearance. The technician observed the procedure correctly but due to an error in the weighing inadvertently used thrice the recommended dose of PAH. The RPF estimated is likely to be:
A. False-high
B. False-low
C. False-high or false-low depending on the GFR.
D. Correct and is unaffected by the PAG overdose.
Ans. B




Q 22. The EEG record shown below is normally recordable during which stage of sleep ?

A. Stage I.
B. Stage II.
C. Stage III.
D. Stage IV.
Ans. B
Q 23. Figure below represents the pH of the digestive juice aspirated from the alimentary tract as a function of position along the alimentary tract during digestion of a meal:

A. A typical value for Y2 is 9.0.
B. A typical value for Y3 is 10.0.
C. The segment C represents the pylorus.
D. The digestive enzymes active in segment A are inactivated in segment B.
Ans. D
Q 24. Which of the following statements is true for excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP):
A. Are self propagating.
B. Show all or none response.
C. Are proportional to the amount of transmitter released by the presynaptic neuron.
D. Are inhibitory at presynaptic terminal.
Ans. C
Q 25. Synaptic conduction is mostly orthodromic because:
A. Dendrites cannot be depolarized.
B. Once repolarized, an area cannot be depolarized.
C. The strength of antidromic impulse is less.
D. Chemical mediator is located only in the presynaptic terminal.
Ans. D
Q 26. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between the two cells are called:
A. Gap junctions.
B. Tight junctions.
C. Anchoring junctions
D. Focal junctions.
Ans. A
BIOCHEMISTRY
Q 27. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is:
A. Cytochrome P-450
B. Glutathione S-transferase
C. NADPH cytochrome P-450-reductase
D. Glucoronyl transferase
Ans. A
Q 28. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is:
A. An abnormality in prophyrin part of hemo-globin.
-chain ofB. Replacement of glutamate by valine in HbA.
-chain of HbA.C. A nonsense mutation in the
D. Substitution of -chain of HbA.valine by glutanmate in the
Ans. B
Q 29. Decreased glycolytic activity impairs oxygen transport by hemoglobin due to:
A. Reduced energy production
B. Decreased production of 2,3-biphospho-glycerate
C. Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin
D. Low level of oxygen
Ans. B
Q 30. The primary role of chaperones is to help in:
A. Protein synthesis
B. Protein degradation
C. Protein denaturation
D. Protein folding
Ans. D
Q 31. The conversion of an optically pure isomer (enantiomer) into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro and levo form is called as:
A. Polymerization
B. Stereoisomerization
C. Racemization
D. Fractionation
Ans. C
Q 32. The protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in chromosomes, is:
A. Histone
B. Collagen
C. Hyaluronic acid binding protein
D. Fibrinogen
Ans. A
Q 33. An enzyme involved in the catabolism of fructose to pyruvate in the liver is:
A. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B. Phosphoglucomutase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Glucokinase
Ans. A
-oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids produces:Q 34.
A. Succinyl CoA
B. Propionyl CoA
C. Acetyl CoA
D. Malonyl CoA
Ans. B
Q 35. The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH equal to:
A. 0.5 pKa
B. pKa
C. pKa+1
D. 2pKa
Ans. B
Q 36. Which of the following is present intracellulary in muscle cells:
A. Insulin
B. Corticosteroid
C. Epinephrine
D. Glucagon
Ans. B
Q 37. Which of the following is not a post transcriptional modification of RNA?
A. Splicing
B. 5 capping
polyadenylationC. 3
D. Glycosylation
Ans. D
Q 38. Serum total lactate dehydrogenase level will NOT be raised in:
A. Muscle crush injury
B. Stroke
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Hemolysis
Ans. B
Q 39. Porphobilinogen in urine produces pink colour with:
A. Fouchet’s reagent.
B. Benedict’s reagent.
C. Sodium nitropruside.
D. Ehrlich’s aldehyde reagent.
Ans. D
Q 40. The collagen triple helix structure is not found in:
A. Cytoplasm.
B. Golgi apparatus.
C. Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum.
D. Intracellular vesicles.
Ans. A
MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITALOGY
Q 41. An anxious mother brought her 4 year old daughter to the pediatrician. The girl was passing loose bulky stools for the past 20 days. This was often associated with pain in abdomen. The pediatrician ordered the stool examination which showed the following organisms. Identify the organism:
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Cryptosporidium
D. E. coli

Ans. B
Q 42. Heat labile instruments for use in surgical procedures can be best sterilized by:
A. Absolute alcohol
B. Ultra violet rays
C. Chlorine releasing compounds
D. Ethylene oxide gas
Ans. D
Q 43. Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured from a picnic party. Twenty children developed abdominal cramps followed by vomiting and watery diarrhoea 6-10 hours after the party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is:
A. Rotavirus infection
B. Entero-toxigenic E. coli infection
C. Staphylococcol toxin
D. Clostridium perfringens infection
Ans. C
Q 44. The following are true for Bordetella pertussis except:
A. It is a strict human pathogen.
B. It can be cultured from the patient during catarrhal stage.
C. It leads to invasion of the respiratory mucosa.
D. Infection can be prevented by a acellular vaccine.
Ans. C
Q 45. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by:
A. 70% alcohol for 5 min.
B. 2% gluteraldelyde for 20 min.
C. 2% formaldehyde for 10 min.
D. 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min.
Ans. B
Q 46. Which of the following statements is true about rabies virus:
A. It is a double stranded RNA virus.
B. Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C. RNA has a negative polarity
D. Affects motor neurons.
Ans. C
Q 47. Which of the following statements is true about endemic typhus:
A. Is caused by R. rickettsii.
B. Is transmitted by the bite of fleas.
C. Has no mammalian reservoir.
D. Can be cultured in chemical defined culture medium.
Ans. B
Q 48. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most parts of Bihar and eastern UP is:
A. Wuchereria bancrofti.
B. Brugia malayi.
C. Onchocerca volvulus.
D. Dirofilaria.
Ans. A
PATHOLOGY
Q 49. A married middle aged female gives history of repeated abortions for the past 5 years. The given below is conceptions prenatal karyogram.

This karyogram suggests the following:
A. Klinfelter’s syndrome
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Down’s syndrome
D. Patau’s syndrome
Ans. C
Q 50. An increased incidence of cholangiocarcinoma is seen in all of the following, except:
A. Hydatid cyst of liver
B. Polycystic disease of liver
C. Sclerosing cholangitis
D. Liver flukes
Ans. A
Q 51. Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in:
A. Peutz-Jeghers polyp
B. Familial polyposis coli
C. Juvenile polyposis
D. Hyperplastic polyp
Ans. B
Q 52. Which of the following is the most common location of hypertensive hemorrhage?
A. Pons.
B. Thalamus.
C. Putamen/external capsule.
D. Subcortical white matter.
Ans. C
Q 53. A 63-year old man presented with massive splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a total leucocyte count of 17000 per mm3. The flowcytometry showed CD19 positive, CD5 positive, CD23 negative, monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positivity comprising 80% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Mantle cell lymphoma.
B. Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes.
C. Follicular lymphoma.
D. Hairy cell leukemia.
Ans. A
Q 54. The HLA class III region genes are important elements in:
A. Transplant rejection phenomenon.
B. Governing susceptibility to autoimmune diseases.
C. Immune surveillance.
D. Antigen presentation and elimination.
Ans. C
Q 55. All the statements about lactoferrin are true, except:
A. It is present in secondary granules of neutrophil.
B. It is present in exocrine secretions of body.
C. It has great affinity for iron.
D. It transports iron for erythropoiesis.
Ans. D
Q 56. Which of the following procedures are used as routine technique for karyotyping using light microscopy?
A. C-banding B. G- banding
C. Q-banding D. Brd V-banding
Ans. B
Q 57. Restriction fragment length polymorphism is used for:
A. Analysis of chromosome structure.
B. DNA estimation.
C. Synthesis of nucleic acid.
D. Detecting proteins in a cell.
Ans. A
PHARMACOLOGY
Q 58. Granulocytopenia, gingival hyperplasia and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of one of the following anticonvulsant drugs:
A. Phenytoin
B. Valproate
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbitone
Ans. A
Q 59. Bacitracin acts on:
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Nucleic acid
D. Ribosomes
Ans. A
Q 60. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except:
A. Nystatin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Amphotericin B
D. Polymixin B
Ans. B
Q 61. All of the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true except:
A. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation.
B. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing ) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration.the area under curve (O-
C. Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption.
D. Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data.
Ans. C
Q 62. The extent to which ionization of a drug takes place is dependent upon pKa of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. Which of the following statements is not correct:
A. pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized.
B. Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not affect its degree of ionization.
C. Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predicting its behaviour in various body fluids.
D. Phenobarbitone with a pKa of 7.2 is largely ionized at acid pH and will be about 40% non-ionised in plasma.
Ans. B
Q 63. Presence of food might be expected to interfere with drug absorption by slowing gastric emptying, or by altering the degree of ionisation of the drug in the stomach. Which of the following statement is not correct example:
A. Absorption of digoxin is delayed by the presence of food.
B. Concurrent food intake may severely reduce the rate of absorption of phenytoin.
C. Presence of food enhances the absorption of hydrochlorothiazide.
D. Antimalarial drug halofantrine is more extensively absorbed if taken with food.
Ans. B
Q 64. Bosentan is a:
A. Serotonin uptake inhibitor.
B. Endothelin receptor antagonist.
C. Leukotriene modifier.
D. Calcium sensitizer.
Ans. B
FORENSIC MEDICINE
Q 65. Mummification refers to:
A. Hardening of muscles after death
B. Colliquative putrification
C. Saponification of subcutaneous fat
D. Dessication of a dead body
Ans. D
Q 66. A patient has been allegedly bitten by cobra snake. The venom in such a bite would be:
A. Musculotoxic
B. Vasculotoxic
C. Cardiotoxic
D. Neurotoxic
Ans. D
Q 67. All the following are related to legal responsibility of an insane person except:
A. Mc Naughten’s rule
B. Durham’s rule
C. Curren’s rule
D. Rule of nine
Ans. D
Q 68. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to:
A. Lead
B. Arsenic
C. Mercury
D. Copper
Ans. B
Q 69. Blackening and tattooing of skin and clothing can be best demonstrated by:
A. Luminol spray.
B. Infrared photography.
C. Ultraviolet light.
D. Magnifying lens.
Ans. B
Q 70. Postmortem lividity is unlikely to develop in a case of:
A. Drowning in well.
B. Drowning in a fast flowing river.
C. Postmortem submersion.
D. Drowning in chlorinated swimming pool.
Ans. B
Q 71. The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death except :
A. Burns.
B. Heat stroke.
C. Pontine hemorrhage.
D. Septicemia.
Ans. A
Q 72. In prenatal diagnostic technique Act 1994 which one of the following is not a ground for carrying out prenatal test ?
A. Pregnant women above 35 years of age.
B. History of two or more spontaneous abortion or fetal loss.
C. When fetal heart rate is 160 per min at fifth and 120 per min at ninth month.
D. History of exposure to potentially teratogenic drugs.
Ans. C
Q 73. Perjury means giving willful false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to seven years. This falls under which section of IPC?
A. 190 of Indian Penal Code.
B. 191 of Indian Penal Code.
C. 192 of Indian Penal Code
D. 193 of Indian Penal code.
Ans. D
Q 74. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is:
A. Cementum apposition.
B. Transparency of root.
C. Attrition.
D. Root resorption.
Ans. B
PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE
Q 75. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing:
A. Criterion validity
B. Construct validity
C. Discriminant validity
D. Content validity
Ans. A
Q 76. Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of:
A. Causal relationship between exposure and effect.
B. Association between two variables.
C. Correlation between two variables.
D. Agreement between two observations.
Ans. B
Q 77. Elements of primary health care include all of the following except:
A. Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation.
B. Providing essential drugs.
C. Sound referral system.
D. Health education.
Ans. C
Q 78. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of:
A. True positive + False negative
B. False positive + True negative
C. True positive + False positive
D. True positive + True negative
Ans. C
Q 79. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied under Rural Child Health (RCH) program are:
A. 20 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid.
B. 40 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid.
C. 40 mg iron & 50 micrograms folic acid.
D. 60 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid.
Ans. A
Q 80. In the management of leprosy, lepromin test is most useful for:
A. Herd immunity
B. Prognosis
C. Treatment
D. Epidemiological investigations
Ans. B
Q 81. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is:
A. Median
B. First quartile
C. Third quartile
D. Mode
Ans. C
Q 82. The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true, except:
A. The source of infection is mainly clinical cases.
B. The disease is more common in dry and cold months of the year.
C. Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended.
D. The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 years of age.
Ans. A


Q 83. The Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is defined as:
A. The gain in weight of young animals per unit weight of protein-consumed.
B. The product of digestibility coeffecient and biological value.
C. The percentage of protein absorbed into the blood.
D. The percentage of nitrogen absorbed from the protein absorbed from the diet.
Ans. A
Q 84. The Vitamin A supplement administered in "Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme" contain:
A. 25,000 i.u./ml
B. 1 lakh i.u./ml
C. 3 lakh i.u./ml
D. 5 lakh i.u./ml
Ans. B
Q 85. A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours and vomited twice in last 4 hours. He is irritable but drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is:
A. Intravenous fluids
B. Oral rehydration therapy
C. Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids.
D. Plain water add libitum.
Ans. B
Q 86. Study this formula carefully:

This denotes:
A. Sensitivity.
B. Specificity.
C. Positive Predictive value.
D. Negative Predictive value.
Ans. A
Q 87. The ‘P’ value of a randomized controlled trial comparing operation A (new procedure) and operation B (Gold standard is 0.04). From this, we conclude that:
A. Type II error is small and we can accept the findings of the study.
B. The probability of false negative conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not, is 4%.
C. The power of study to detect a difference between operation A and B is 96%.
D. The probability of a false positive conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not, is 4%.
Ans. D

Q 88. The commonest cause of low vision in India is:
A. Uncorrected refractive error
B. Cataract.
C. Glaucoma
D. Squint.
Ans. A
Q 89. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is:
A. Activities of Daily Living (ADL) scale.
B. Wing’s Handicaps, Behaviour and Skills (HBS) Schedule.
C. Binet and Simon IQ tests.
D. Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI).
Ans. B
Q 90. Scope of family planning services include all of the following except:
A. Screening for cervical cancer.
B. Providing services for unmarried mothers.
C. Screening for HIV infection.
D. Providing adoption services.
Ans. C
Q 91. Class II exposure in animal bites includes the following:
A. Scratches without oozing of blood.
B. Licks on a fresh wound.
C. Scratch with oozing of blood on palm.
D. Bites from wild animals.
Ans. B
Q 92. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of iron and folic acid adult tablets supplied under the "National Programme for Anaemia Prophylaxis" are:
A. 60 mg of elemental iron and 250 microgram of folic acid.
B. 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 micrograms of folic acid.
C. 20 mg of elemental iron and 750 micrograms of folic acid.
D. 200 mg of elemental iron and 1000 micro-grams of folic acid.
Ans. B
Q 93. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes:
A. All the people living in next fifty houses.
B. All the close contacts.
C. All susceptibles amongst close contact.
D. All susceptibles in the whole village.
Ans. C
Q 94. The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on:
A. Visual analog scale.
B. Guttman scale.
C. Likert scale.
D. Adjectival scale.
Ans. C
Q 95. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except:
A. Prevalence of disease in population.
B. Power of the study.
C. Significance level.
D. Desired precision.
Ans. D
Q 96. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more than:
A. 1 per 10,000
B. 2 per 10,000
C. 5 per 10,000
D. 10 per 10,000
Ans. A
Q 97. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except:
A. Mass chemoprophylaxis.
B. Proper disposal of excreta.
C. Chlorination of water.
D. Early detection and management of cases.
Ans. A
Q 98. A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11 kg., respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is?
A. Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to secondary level hospital.
B. Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotics and advise to report after 2 days.
C. Classify as severe pneumonia, start antibiotics and refer urgently.
D. Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently.
Ans. C
MEDICINE
Q 99. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis.
B. Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis.
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
D. Syphilis and chancroid.
Ans. C
Q 100. A 56 year old man presents in the casualty with severe chest pain and difficulty in breathing. His ECG was taken immediately. The above ECG suggest the following diagnosis:
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Acute pulmonary embolism
C. Second degree heart block
D. Atrial fibrillation

Ans. B
Q 101. All of the following infections are often associated with acute intravascular hemolysis except:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Bartonella bacilliformis
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Babesia microti
Ans. A
Q 102. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except:
A. Peaked T waves
B. Presence of U waves
C. Sine wave pattern
D. Loss of P waves
Ans. B
Q 103. The correct sequence of cell cycle is:
A. G0 - G1 - S - G2 - M
B. G0 - G1 - G2 - S - M
C. G0 - M - G2 - S - G1
D. G0 - G1 - S - M - G2
Ans. A
Q 104. Commonest cause of sporadic encephalitis is:
A. Japanese B Virus
B. Herpes Simplex Virus
C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
D. Rubeola Virus
Ans. B
Q 105. Raised serum level of lipoprotein - (a) is a predictor of:
A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Rheumatic arthritis
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Cervical cancer
Ans. C
Q 106. Haemorrhage secondary to heparin administration can be best corrected by administration of:
A. Vitamin K
B. Whole blood
C. Protamine
D. Ascorbic acid
Ans. C
Q 107. Which one of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion:
A. Cirrhosis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
Ans. D
Q 108. A 60 year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from Legionnaire’s disease after he returns home from attending a convention. He could have acquired it:
A. From a person suffering from the infection while travelling in the aeroplane.
B. From a chronic carrier in the convention center.
C. From inhalation of the aerosol in the air-conditioned room at convention center.
D. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention.
Ans. C
Q 109. In a post-operative intensive care unit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection on the same day. The best method to prevent cross infection occurring in other patients in the same ward is to:
A. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward.
B. Fumigate the ward.
C. Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite.
D. Practice proper hand washing.
Ans. D
Q 110. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is:
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM
Ans. D
Q 111. The following are true regarding Lyme’s disease, except:
A. It is transmitted by Ixodes tick.
B. Erythema chronicum migrans may be a clinical feature.
C. Borrelia recurrentis is the aetiological agent.
D. Rodents act as natural hosts.
Ans. C
Q 112. A couple, with a family history of beta thalassemia major in a distant relative, has come for counselling. The husband has HbA2 of 4.8% and the wife has HbA2 of 2.3%. The risk of having a child with beta thalassemia major is:
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 5%
D. 0%
Ans. D
Q 113. A 2 month old baby with acute icteric viral hepatitis like illness slips into encephalopathy after 48 hours. The mother is a known hepatitis B carrier. Mother’s hepatitis B virus serological profile is most likely to be:
A. HBsAg positive only
B. HBsAg and HBeAg positive
C. HBsAg and HBe antibody positive
D. HBV DNA positive
Ans. C
Q 114. A 7 year old girl from Bihar presented with three episodes of massive hematemesis and melena. There is no history of jaundice. On examination, she had a large spleen, non-palpable liver and mild ascites. Portal vein was not visualised on ultrasonography. Liver function tests were normal and endoscopy revealed esophageal varices. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Kala azar with portal hypertension
B. Portal hypertension of unknown etiology
C. Chronic liver disease with portal hypertension
D. Portal hypertension due to extrahepatic obstruction.
Ans. D
Q 115. A 40 year old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of:
A. Dohle bodies
B. Hypersegmented neutrophils
C. Spherocytes
D. Howell-Jolly bodies
Ans. D
Q 116. Which of the heart valve is most likely to be involved by infective endocarditis following a septic abortion?
A. Aortic valve
B. Tricuspid valve
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Mitral valve
Ans. B
Q 117. Central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following, except:
A. Hyperosmolarity
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Acidosis
D. Hyponatremia
Ans. A
Q 118. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with which of the following syndrome:
A. MEN I
B. MEN II
C. Fraumeni syndrome
D. Hashimoto’s syndrome
Ans. B
Q 119. Which of the following statements represent most correct interpretation from the ECG waveform given below:

A. X-originated from an atrial ectopic focus.
B. X reset the cardiac rhythm.
C. Both heart sounds would have been present at X beat.
D. The path of spread of excitation was normal.
Ans. B
Q 120. A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is:
A. Thymoma.
B. Lung cancer.
C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
D. Superior vena caval obstruction.
Ans. B
Q 121. All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except:
A. Protein S deficiency.
B. Malignancy.
C. Obesity.
D. Progesterone therapy.
Ans. D
Q 122. An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except:
A. Small ventricular septal defect.
B. Papillary muscle dysfunction.
C. Tricuspid regurgitation.
D. Aortic stenosis.
Ans. D
Q 123. Troponin-T is preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) in all of the following situations except:
A. Bedside diagnosis of MI.
B. Postoperatively (after CABG).
C. Reinfarction after 4 days.
D. Small infarcts.
Ans. C
Q 124. The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is secondary to:
A. Rheumatic heart disease.
B. Dilatation of right ventricle.
C. Coronary artery disease.
D. Endocarditis due to intravenous drug abuse.
Ans. B
Q 125. Absence seizures are characterized on EEG by:
A. 3 Hz spike & wave
B. 1-2 Hz spike & wave.
C. Generalized polyspikes.
D. Hypsarrythmia.
Ans. A
Q 126. All of the following are associated with low C3 levels except:
A. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
B. Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis.
C. Goodpasture’s disease.
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus.
Ans. C
Q 127. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by:
A. Cholera.
B. Starvation.
C. Ethylene glycol poisoning.
D. Lactic acidosis.
Ans. A
Q 128. Diagnostic features of allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all of the following except:
A. Changing pulmonary infiltrates.
B. Peripheral eosinophilia.
C. Serum precipitins against Aspergillous fumigatus.
D. Occurrence in patients with old cavitary lesions.
Ans. D
Q 129. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following:
A. Hyponatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mEq/l.
B. Hypernatremia and urine sodium excretion > 20 mEq/l.
C. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.
D. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia.
Ans. A
Q 130. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except:
A. Opening snap.
B. Pericardial knock.
C. Ejection click.
D. Tumor plop.
Ans. C
Q 131. Pulmonary hypertension may occur in all of the following conditions except:
A. Toxic oil syndrome.
B. Progressive systemic sclerosis.
C. Sickle cell anaemia.
D. Argemone mexicana poisoning.
Ans. D
Q 132. Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all the following, except:
A. Mineralocorticoid deficiency.
B. Bartter’s syndrome.
C. Thiazide diuretic therapy.
D. Recurrent vomiting.
Ans. A
Q 133. The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is:
A. Herpes genitalis.
B. Aphthous ulcer.
C. Syphilis.
D. Chancroid.
Ans. A
Q 134. The most effective drug against M. leprae is:
A. Dapsone.
B. Rifampicin.
C. Clofazimine.
D. Prothionamide.
Ans. B
Q 135. A 30-year old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnoea and non-productive cough, patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Cryptococcosis.
C. Pneunocystis carinii pneumonia.
D. Toxoplasmosis.
Ans. C
Q 136. Extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of:
A. Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis.
B. Asbestosis.
C. Silicosis.
D. Siderosis.
Ans. B
Q 137. Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is:
A. Seizures.
B. Focal neurological deficits.
C. Dementia
D. Radiculopathy.
Ans. A
Q 138. A 55-year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest X-ray is normal. The next investigation should be:
A. Lung ventilation-perfusion scan.
B. Pulmonary arteriography.
C. Pulmonary venous angiography.
D. Echocardiography.
Ans. B
Q 139. A 60-year old man with diabetes mellitus presents with painless, swollen right ankle joint. Radiograph of the ankle shows destroyed joint with large number of loose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Charcot’s joint
B. Clutton’s joint
C. Osteoarthritis.
D. Rheumatoid arthritis.
Ans. A
Q 140. All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except:
A. T wave inversion develop before ST elevations return to baseline.
B. Global ST segment elevation is seen in early pericarditis.
C. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding.
D. PR segment depression is present in majority of patients.
Ans. A
Q 141. Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as:
A. Iridocyclitis.
B. Polyarteritis nodosa.
C. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
D. Giant cell arteritis.
Ans. C
Q 142. The blood gas parameters: pH 7.58, pCO2 23 mmHg, PO2 300 mmHg and oxygen saturation 60% are most consistent with:
A. Carbon monoxide poisoning.
B. Ventilatory malfunction.
C. Voluntary hyperventilation.
D. Methyl alcohol poisoning.
Ans. A
Q 143. Most suitable radioisotope of iodine for treating hyperthyroidism is:
A. I123
B. I125
C. I131
D. I132
Ans. C
Q 144. In the presence of vasopressin the greatest fraction of filtered water is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron:
A. Proximal tubule.
B. Distal tubule.
C. Loope of Henle.
D. Collecting duct.
Ans. A
Q 145. All of the following statements are correct about potassium balance, except:
A. Most of potassium is intracellular.
B. Three quarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletal muscle.
C. Intracellular potassium is released into extra-cellular space in response to severe injury.
D. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment.
Ans. D
Q 146. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except:
A. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region.
B. Hyperactive tendon reflexes.
C. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG.
D. Carpopedal spasm.
Ans. C
Q 147. Which of the following is not true about Berger’s disease?
A. The pathologic changes are proliferation and usually confined to mesangial cells; usually focal and segmental.
B. Hematuria may be gross or microscopic.
C. On immunoflurorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG.
D. Absence of associated proteinuria is pathognomonic.
Ans. D
Q 148. All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except:
A. Duration of surgery more than thirty minutes.
B. Obesity.
C. Age less than forty years.
D. Use of the oestrogen-progesterone contraceptive pills.
Ans. C
Q 149. A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is:
A. Weil Felix test.
B. Paul Bunnel test.
C. Microscopic agglutination test.
D. Micro immunofluorescence test.
Ans. C
Q 150. Memory T cells can be identified by using the following marker:
A. CD45 RA.
B. CD45 RB.
C. CD45 RC.
D. CD45 RO.
Ans. D
Q 151. All of the following statements about NK cells are true, except:
A. They are derived from large granular cells.
B. They comprise about 5% of human peripheral lymphoid cells.
C. They are MHC restricted cytotoxic cells.
D. They express IgG Fc receptors.
Ans. C
Q 152. Which of the following increases the susceptibility to coronary artery disease:
A. Type V hyperlipoproteinaemia.
B. Von Willebrandt’s disease.
C. Nephrotic syndrome.
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus.
Ans. D
Q 153. MHC class III genes encode:
A. Complement component C3.
B. Tumor necrosis factor.
C. Interleukin 2.
D. Beta 2 microglobulin.
Ans. B
Q 154. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with:
A. HLA-DQ2.
B. HLA-DR4.
C. HLA-DQ3.
D. Blood group ‘B’.
Ans. A
Q 155. Most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis of iron deficiency is:
A. Serum iron levels.
B. Serum ferritin levels.
C. Serum transferrin receptor population.
D. Transferrin saturation.
Ans. B
Q 156. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemias, except:
A. Age more than 60 years.
B. Leucocyte count more than 1,00,000/µl.
C. Secondary leukemias.
D. Presence of t(8;21).
Ans. D
Q 157. Leukoerythroblastic picture may be seen in all of the following, except:
A. Myelofibrosis.
B. Metastatic carcinoma.
C. Gaucher’s disease.
D. Thalassemia.
Ans. D
Q 158. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason:
A. Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart.
B. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure.
C. There is a sudden out-bursts of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart.
D. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in liver.
Ans. A
Q 159. All of the following are useful intravenous therapy for hypertensive emergencies, except:
A. Fenoldopam.
B. Urapidil.
C. Enalapril.
D. Nifedipine.
Ans. D
Q 160. Cardiac output measured by thermodilution technique is unreliable in all of the following situations except:
A. Ventricular septal defect.
B. Tricuspid regurgitation.
C. Low cardiac output.
D. Pulmonary regurgitation.
Ans. A
Q 161. Exercise testing is absolutely contraindi-cated in which one of the following:
A. One week following myocardial infarction.
B. Unstable angina.
C. Aortic stenosis.
D. Peripheral vascular disease.
Ans. B
Q 162. A nineteen year old female with short stature, wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhoea most likely has a karyotype of:
A. 47, XX+18.
B. 46, XXY.
C. 47, XXY.
D. 45 X.
Ans. D
Q 163. Osteomalacia is associated with:
A. Decrease in osteoid volume.
B. Decrease in osteoid surface.
C. Increase in osteoid maturation time.
D. Increase in mineral apposition rate.
Ans. C
Q 164. A 23-year old woman has experienced episodes of myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test to diagnose her disease would be:
A. CD4 lymphocyte count.
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
C. Antinuclear antibody.
D. Assay for thyroid hormones.
Ans. C
Q 165. A 5-year old boy is detected to be HBsAg positive on two separate occasions during a screening program for hepatitis B. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Child was given 3 doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at the age of one year. His mother was treated for chronic hepatitis B infection around the same time. The next relevant step for further investigating the child would be to:
A. Obtain HBe Ag and anti-HBe antibodies.
B. Obtain anti-HBs levels.
C. Repeat HBsAg.
D. Repeat another course of hepatitis B vaccine.
Ans. A
Q 166. Which of the following hepatitis viruses have significant perinatal transmission:
A. Hepatitis E virus.
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis B virus.
D. Hepatitis A virus.
Ans. C
Q 167. The diffusion capacity of lung (DLCO) is decreased in all of the following conditions except:
A. Interstitial lung disease.
B. Goodpasture’s syndrome.
C. Emphysema.
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension.
Ans. B
Q 168. Osler’s nodes are typically seen in which one of the following:
A. Chronic candida endocarditis.
B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis.
C. Pseudomonas endocarditis.
D. Libman sack’s endocarditis.
Ans. B

Q 169. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the following except:
A. Food Faddist.
B. Homocystinemia
C. Chronic alcoholic
D. Chronic heart failure patients on diuretics.
Ans. B
Q 170. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma:
A. Breast.
B. Melanoma.
C. Thyroid.
D. Lung.
Ans. C
Q 171. Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis has been pathophysiologically linked to which of the following factors:
A. Antibodies to thrombolytic agents.
B. Fibrinopeptide A.
C. Lipoprotein (a) [Lp(a)].
D. Triglycerides.
Ans. A
Q 172. Which of the following is pan-T lymphocyte marker?
A. CD2.
B. CD3.
C. CD19.
D. CD25
Ans. B
Q 173. Following are the features of corticospinal involvement except:
A. Cog-wheel rigidity.
B. Spasticity.
C. Plantar extensor response.
D. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes.
Ans. A
Q 174. Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducting luteinizing hormone surge is associated with one of the following steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation:
A. High estrogen : low progesterone.
B. Low estrogen : high progesterone.
C. Low estrogen : low progestrone
D. High estrogen : high progesterone.
Ans. A
Q 175. A post-operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus at the 4th post operative hour. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Excessive mediastinal bleeding.
B. Ventricular dysfunction.
C. Congestive cardiac failure.
D. Cardiac tamponade.
Ans. D
PEDIATRICS
Q 176. All of the following may occur in Noonan’s syndrome except:
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
B. Cryptorchidism.
C. Infertility in females.
D. Autosomal dominant transmission.
Ans. C
Q 177. In an single visit, a 9-month old, unimmunized child can be given the following vaccination:
A. Only BCG.
B. BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1.
C. DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles.
D. BCG, DPT-1 OPV-1, Measles.
Ans. D
Q 178. An eight-year old boy had abdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 110 cms and weight is 14.5 kg. Stool culture was negative for known enteropathogens. The sigmoidoscopy was normal. During the same period, child had an episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. The mantoux test was 5 × 5 mm. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Ulcerative colitis.
B. Crohn’s disease.
C. Intestinal tuberculosis.
D. Strongyloidosis.
Ans. B
Q 179. A 45-day old infant developed icterus and two days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared. Child was found to be positive for HBsAg. The mother was also HBs Ag carrier. The mother’s hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be:
A. HBsAg positive only.
B. HBsAg and HbeAg positivity.
C. HBsAg and anti-HBe antibody positivity.
D. Mother infected with mutant HBV.
Ans. B
Q 180. A 15-year old healthy boy with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of erythema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg and trunk every time within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of:
A. Localised immune-complex deposition.
B. Cell mediated hypersensitivity.
C. Localized anaphylaxis.
D. Release of complement C3b.
Ans. C
Q 181. A 2-month baby presents with history of jaundice, turmeric colored urine and pale stools since birth. Examination reveals liver span of 10 cms, firm in consistency and spleen of 3 cms. The most specific investigation for establishing the diagnosis would be:
A. Liver function tests.
B. Ultrasound abdomen.
C. Peroperative cholangiogram.
D. Liver biopsy.
Ans. D
Q 182. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the newborn is seen in association with:
A. Turner syndrome.
B. Down syndrome.
C. Neurofibromatosis.
D. Ataxia telangiectasia.
Ans. B
Q 183. A 1-month old baby presents with frequent vomiting and failure to thrive. There are features of moderate dehydration. Blood sodium is 122 mEq/l and potassium is 6.1 mEq/l. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Gitelman syndrome.
B. Bartter Syndrome
C. 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
hydroxylase deficiency.D. 11-
Ans. C
Q 184. A male child of 15 years, with a mental age of 9 years has an IQ of:
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
Ans. B


Q 185. The most appropriate drug used for chelation therapy in beta thalassemia major is:
A. Oral desferrioxamine.
B. Oral deferiprone.
C. Intramuscular EDTA.
D. Oral Succimer.
Ans. B
Q 186. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphyseal dysgenesis ?
A. Hypothyroidism.
B. Cushings syndrome.
C. Addison’s disease.
D. Hypoparathyroidism.
Ans. A
Q 187. An albino girl gets married to a normal boy. What are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers?
A. None affected, all carriers.
B. All normal.
C. 50% carriers.
D. 50% affected, 50% carriers.
Ans. A
Q 188. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children.
A. Often affects those younger than 8 years of age.
B. It affects the kidney focally more frequently than diffusely.
C. Boys are affected more frequently.
D. Clinical presentation in children is same as in adults.
Ans. D
Q 189. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to pyuria in children?
A. Presence of more than 5 WBC/hpf (high power field) for girls and more than 3 WBC/hpf for boys.
B. Infection can occur without pyuria.
C. Pyuria may be present without urinary tract infection.
D. Isolated pyuria is neither confirmatory nor diagnostic for urinary tract infection.
Ans. D
Q 190. Which one of the following is the most common cause of abdominal mass in neonates?
A. Neuroblastoma.
B. Wilm’s tumour.
C. Distended bladder.
D. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys.
Ans. D
DERMATOLOGY
Q 191. Acantholysis is characterstic of:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Pemphigoid
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
Ans. A
Q 192. A 5 year old boy has multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypopigmented macules with scaling on his face. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis versicolor.
B. Indeterminate leprosy.
C. Pityriasis alba.
D. Acrofacial vitiligo.
Ans. C
Q 193. A 40-year old male developed persistent oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extremities. Direct examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermis. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris.
B. Bullous pemphigoid.
C. Bullous lupus erythematosus.
D. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita.
Ans. A
Q 194. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular plaque on the face is:
A. Gram’s stain.
B. Potassium hydroxide mount.
C. Tissue smear.
D. Wood’s lamp examination.
Ans. B
Q 195. An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is:
A. Oral griseofulvin therapy.
B. Topical griseofulvin therapy.
C. Shaving of the scalp.
D. Selenium sulphide shampoo.
Ans. A
Q 196. An 8 month old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and soles. The sibling also have similar com-plaints. The treatment of choice in such a patient is:
A. Systemic ampicillin.
B. Topical betamethasone.
C. Systemic prednisolone.
D. Topical permethrin.
Ans. D
PSYCHIATRY
Q 197. Which of the following symbol represent adopted individuals:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ans. D
Q 198. All of the following are features of hallucinations, except:
A. It is independent of the will of the observer.
B. Sensory organs are not involved.
C. It is as vivid as that in a true sense perception.
D. It occurs in the absence of a perceptual stimulus.
Ans. B
Q 199. Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with:
A. Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors.
B. Features of intoxication due to alcohol.
C. Sixth nerve palsy.
D. Korsakoff psychosis.
Ans. A
Q 200. All of the following are impulse control disorders except:
A. Pyromania.
B. Trichotillomania.
C. Kleptomania.
D. Capgras’ syndrome.
Ans. D
Q 201. A 20-year old man has presented with increased alcohol consumption and sexual indulgence, irritability, lack of sleep and not feeling fatigued even on prolonged periods of activity. All these changes have been present for 3 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Alcohol dependence.
B. Schizophrenia.
C. Mania.
D. Impulsive control disorder.
Ans. C
Q 202. An alcoholic is brought to the Emergency OPD with the complaint of irrelevant talking. He had stopped using alcohol three days back. On examination, he is found to be disoriented to time, place and person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinations. There is no history of head injury. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Dementia praecox.
B. Derlirium tremens.
C. Schizophrenia.
D. Korsakoff’s psychosis.
Ans. B
Q 203. A 41-year old married female presented with headache for the last 6 months. She had several consultations. All her investigations were found to be within normal limits. She still insists that there is something wrong in her head and seeks another consultation. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Phobia.
B. Psychogenic headache.
C. Hypochondriasis.
D. Depression.
Ans. C
Q 204. Behavior therapy to change maladaptive behaviors using response as reinforcer uses the principles of:
A. Classical conditioning.
B. Moneling.
C. Social learning.
D. Operant conditioning.
Ans. D
Q 205. A 15 year old boy feels that the dirt has hung onto him whenever he passes through the dirty street. This repetitive thought causes much distress and anxiety. He knows that there is actually no such thing after he has cleaned once but he is not satisfied and is compelled to think so. This has led to social withdrawal. He spends much of his time thinking about the dirt and contamination. This has affected his studies also. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Obsessive compulsive disorder.
B. Conduct disorder.
C. Agoraphobia.
D. Adjustment disorder.
Ans. A
Q 206. A 50 year old man has presented with pain in back, lack of interest in recreational activities, low mood, lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite for two months. There was no history suggestive of delusions or hallucinations. He did not suffer from any chronic medical illness. There was no family history of psychiatric illness. Routine investigations including haemogram, renal function tests, liver functions tests, electrocardiogram did not reveal any abnormality. This patient should be treated with:
A. Haloperidol.
B. Sertraline.
C. Alprazolam.
D. Olanzapine.
Ans. B
GENERAL SURGERY
Q 207. A 70 year old male patient presented with history of chest pain and was diagnosed to have coronary artery disease. During routine evaluation, an ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of gallbladder stones. There was no past history of biliary colic or jaundice. What is the best treatment advice for such a patient for his gallbladder stones:
A. Open cholecystectomy
B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C. No surgery for gallbladder stones
D. ERCP and removal of gallbladder stones
Ans. C
Q 208. Early stage of trauma is characterized by:
A. Catabolism.
B. Anabolism.
C. Glycogenesis.
D. Gluconeogenesis.
Ans. A
Q 209. Bedsore is an example of:
A. Tropical ulcer
B. Trophic ulcer
C. Venous ulcer
D. Post thrombotic ulcer
Ans. B
Q 210. Marjolin’s ulcer is:
A. Malignant ulcer found on the scar of burn.
B. Malignant ulcer found on infected foot.
C. Trophic ulcer.
D. Meleney’s gangrene.
Ans. A
Q 211. If a patient with Raynaud’s disease immer-sed his hand in cold water, the hand will:
A. Become red.
B. Remain unchanged.
C. Turn white.
D. Become blue.
Ans. C
Q 212. The best treatment for cystic hygroma is:
A. Surgical excision.
B. Radiotherapy.
C. Sclerotherapy.
D. Chemotherapy.
Ans. A
Q 213. Which of the following is most suggestive of neonatal small bowel obstruction:
A. Generalised abdominal distension.
B. Failure to pass meconeum in the first 24 hours.
C. Bilious vomiting.
D. Refusal of feeds.
Ans. C
Q 214. What is most characteristic of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
A. Affects the first born female child.
B. The pyloric tumour is best felt during feeding.
C. The patient is commonly marasmic.
D. Loss of appetite occurs early.
Ans. B
Q 215. Which of the following lasers is used for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia as well as urinary calculi?
A. CO2 laser
B. Excimer laser
C. Ho : YAG laser
D. Nd : YAG laser
Ans. C
Q 216. What is the most appropriate operation for a solitary nodule in one lobe of thyroid:
A. Lobectomy
B. Hemithyroidectomy.
C. Nodule removal.
D. Partial lobectomy with 1 cm margin around nodule.
Ans. B
Q 217. A posteriorly perforating ulcer in the pyloric antrum of the stomach is most likely to produce initial localized peritonitis or abscess formation in the following:
A. Omental bursa (lesser sac)
B. Greater sac
C. Right subphrenic space
D. Hepatorenal space (pouch of Morrison)
Ans. A
Q 218. A 65-year old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuria. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Carcinoma urinary bladder.
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
C. Carcinoma prostate.
D. Cystolithiasis.
Ans. A
Q 219. A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with proximal hydrouretero-nephrosis is best treated with:
A. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy.
B. Antegrade percutaneous access.
C. Open ureterolithotomy.
D. Ureteroscopic retrieval.
Ans. D
Q 220. Semen analysis of a young man who presented with primary infertility revealed low volume, fructose negative ejaculate with azoospermia. Which of the following is the most useful imaging modality to evaluate the cause of his infertility ?
A. Colour duplex ultrasonography of the scrotum.
B. Transrectal ultrasonography.
C. Retrograde urethrography
D. Spermatic venography.
Ans. B
Q 221. A 70 year old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent transurethral resection of prostate under spinal anaesthesia. One hour later, he developed vomiting and altered sensorium. the most probable cause is:
A. Overdosage of spinal anaesthetic agent.
B. Rupture of bladder.
C. Hyperkalemia.
D. Water intoxication.
Ans. D
Q 222. A 50-year old male, working as a hotel cook, has four dependent family members. He has been diagnosed with an early stage squamous cell cancer of anal canal. He has more than 60% chances of cure. The best treatment option is:
A. Abdomino-perineal resection.
B. Combined surgery and radiotherapy.
C. Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
D. Chemotherapy alone.
Ans. C
Q 223. The commonest cause of an obliterative stricture of the membranous urethra is:
A. Fall-astride injury.
B. Road-traffic accident with fracture pelvis and rupture urethra.
C. Prolonged catheterization.
D. Gonococcal infection
Ans. B
Q 224. Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia:
A. Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis.
B. Nocturnal frequency.
C. Recurrent urinary tract infection.
D. Voiding bladder pressures >50 cm of water.
Ans. A
Q 225. A 27 year old man presents with a left testicular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node mass. The treatment of choice is:
A. Radiotherapy.
B. Immunotherapy with interferon and inter-leukins.
C. Left high inguinal orchidectomy plus chemotherapy.
D. Chemotherapy alone.
Ans. C
Q 226. The best time for Surgery of hypospadias is:
A. 1-4 months of age.
B. 6-10 months of age.
C. 12-18 months of age.
D. 2-4 years of age.
Ans. B
Q 227. The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for:
A. Varicose veins.
B. Arteriovenous fistulae.
C. Aneurysm.
D. Acute ischemia.
Ans. C
Q 228. Sympathectomy is indicated in all the following conditions except:
A. Ischaemic ulcers.
B. Intermittent claudication.
C. Anhidrosis.
D. Acrocyanosis.
Ans. C

orthopaedics
Q 229. Commonest cause for neuralgic pain in foot is:
A. Compression of communication between medial and lateral plantar nerve.
B. Exaggeration of longitudinal arches.
C. Injury to deltoid ligament.
D. Shortening of plantar aponeurosis.
Ans. A
Q 230. In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess usually erodes:
A. Intervertebral disc
B. Into the pleural cavity
C. Into the retroperitoneal space
D. Towards the SKIN
Ans. D
Q 231. A ten-year old girl presents with swelling of one knee joint. All of the following conditions can be considered in the differential diagnosis, except:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C. Haemophilia
D. Villonodular synovitis
Ans. C
Q 232. Avascular necrosis can be a possible sequelae of FRACTURE of all of the following bones, except:
A. Femur neck
B. Scaphoid
C. Talus
D. Calcaneum
Ans. D
Q 233. Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following injury:
A. Posterior dislocation of hip joint.
B. FRACTURE neck of femur.
C. Trochanteric FRACTURE .
D. Anterior dislocation of hip.
Ans. A
Q 234. A 30-year old male was brought to the casualty following a road traffic accident. His physical examination revealed that his right lower limb was short, internally rotated and flexed and adducted at the hip. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. FRACTURE neck of femur.
B. Trochanteric FRACTURE .
C. Central FRACTURE dislocation of hip.
D. Posterior dislocation of hip.
Ans. D
Q 235. Which one of the following tests will you adopt while examining a knee joint where you suspect an old tear of anterior cruciate ligament?
A. Posterior drawer test.
B. McMurray test.
C. Lachman test.
D. Pivot shift test.
Ans. C
Q 236. An eight-year old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Ewing’s sarcoma.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Histiocytosis.
D. Metastasis.
Ans. C
Q 237. Kienbock’s disease is due to avascular necrosis of:
A. Femoral neck.
B. Medial cuneiform bone.
C. Lunate bone.
D. Scaphoid bone.
Ans. C
Q 238. Pseudoclaudication is due to compression of:
A. Femoral artery.
B. Femoral nerve.
C. Cauda Equina.
D. Popliteal artery.
Ans. C
Anaesthesia
Q 239. An anaesthetist orders a new attendent to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendent to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:
A. Black cylinder with white shoulder.
B. Black cylinder with grey shoulder.
C. White cylinder with black shoulder.
D. Grey cylinder with white shoulder.
Ans. A
Q 240. During rapid sequence induction of Anaesthesia :
A. Sellick’s maneuver is not required.
B. Pre-oxygenation is mandatory.
C. Suxamethonium is contraindicated.
D. Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation.
Ans. B
Q 241. A 5 year old boy suffering from Duchenne muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon lengthening procedure. The most appropriate anaesthetic would be:
A. Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O & halothane for maintenance.
B. Induction with intravenous propofol and N2O & oxygen for maintenance.
C. Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O & halothane for maintenance.
D. Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O & oxygen for maintenance.
Ans. B
Q 242. A 25 year old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general Anaesthesia with spontaneous respiration. The most efficient anaesthetic circuit is:
A. Mapleson A
B. Mapleson B
C. Mapleson C
D. Mapleson D
Ans. A
Q 243. In all the following conditions neuraxial blockade is absolutely contraindicated, except:
A. Patient refusal.
B. Coagulopathy.
C. Severe hypovolemia.
D. Pre-existing neurological deficits.
Ans. D
Q 244. Interscalene approach to brachial plexus block does not provide surgical Anaesthesia in the area of distribution of which of the following nerve:
A. Musculocutaneous.
B. Ulnar.
C. Radial.
D. Median.
Ans. B
Q 245. At the end of a balanced Anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received?
A. Pancuronium
B. Gallamine
C. Atracuronium
D. Vecuronium
Ans. C
Q 246. A 64 year old hypertensive obese female was undergoing Surgery for FRACTURE femur under general Anaesthesia . Intra-operatively her end tidal carbon dioxide decreased to 20 from 40 mm Hg, followed by hypotension and oxygen saturation of 85%. What would be the most probable cause:
A. Fat embolism
B. Hypovolemia
C. Bronchospasm
D. Myocardial infarction
Ans. A
Q 247. One unit of fresh blood raises the Hb% concentration by:
A. 0.1 gm%
B. 1 gm%
C. 2 gm%
D. 2.2 gm%
Ans. B
Q 248. A 50 kg. man with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters: pH 7.05, pCO2 12 mmHg, pO2 108 mmHg, HCO3 5 mEq/L, base excess -30 mEq/L. The approximate quantity of sodium bicarbonate that he should receive in half hour is:
A. 250 mEq.
B. 350 mEq.
C. 500 mEq.
D. 750 mEq.
Ans. A
Q 249. The induction agent of choice in day care Anaesthesia is:
A. Sevoflurane.
B. Ketamine.
C. Propofol.
D. Methohexitone.
Ans. C
Q 250. A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general Anaesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hours. Which one of the following induction agents is preferred:
A. Thiopentone sodium.
B. Ketamine.
C. Diazepam.
D. Propofol.
Ans. D
Q 251. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the following circumstances, except:
A. After 1 min. of arrest routinely.
B. Hypocalcemia.
C. Calcium channel blocker toxicity.
D. Electromechanical dissociation.
Ans. A
Q 252. Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is:
A. Ketamine.
B. Etomidate.
C. Propofol.
D. Thiopentone.
Ans. B
OBSTETRICS AND Gynaecology
Q 253. A 40 year old lady delivered a full term baby. On examination of the baby, the neonatologist noted certain urogenital abnormality. He took the following picture. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Urogenital sinus
B. Hypertrophied clitoris
C. Miocropenis
D. Vulval hematoma

Ans. B
Q 54. A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient department (OPD) with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 × 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently is:
A. Pap smear
B. Punch biopsy
C. Endocervical curettage
D. Colposcopy
Ans. B
Q 255. A hemodynamically stable nulliparous patient with ectopic pregnancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 × 3 cms and beta hCG titre of 1500 miu/ml. What modality of treatment is suitable for her:
A. Conservative management
B. Medical management
C. Laparoscopic Surgery
D. Laparotomy
Ans. B
Q 256. A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after:
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Full term pregnancy
C. Spontaneous abortion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Ans. B

fmge paper 2002

ALL INDIA
PAPER 2002
SOLVED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Anatomy
Q 1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except:
A. Melanocyte
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Sympathetic ganglia
D. Cauda equina
Ans. D
Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation:
A. Establishes all the three germ layers
B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to
its cephalic end
C. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass
D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks
Ans. A
Q 3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except:
A. They have centrally located nuclei
B. They are derived from neural crest cells
C. They are multipolar
D. They contain lipofuscin granules
Ans. C
Q 4. Elastic cartilage is found in:
A. Auditory tube
B. Nasal septum
C. Articular cartilage
D. Costal cartilage
Ans. A
Q 5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
A. Coracoclavicular ligament
B. Coracoacromial ligament
C. Costoclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
Ans. A
Q 6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of:
A. Femoral artery
B. External iliac artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Aorta
Ans. A

Q 7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following, except:
A. Esophageal opening
B. Costovertebral triangle
C. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm
D. Inferior vena cava opening
Ans. D
Q 8. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except:
A. Ureteropelvic junction
B. Ureterovesicle junction
C. Crossing of iliac artery
D. Ischial spine
Ans. D
Q 9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney , except:
A. Stellate veins drain superficial zone
B. It is site of portosystemic anastomosis
C. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum
D. Its segmental arteries are end-arteries
Ans. B
Q 10. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is:
A. Hypogastric nerve
B. Pudendal nerve
C. Splachnic visceral nerve
D. Sympathetic plexus
Ans. B
Q 11. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve:
A. Masseter
B. Buccinator
C. Tensor veli palati
D. Posterior belly of digastric
Ans. C
Q 12. The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of the following, except:
A. Facial nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
Ans. B
Q 13. All of the following are features of large intestine, except:
A. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools
B. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction
C. Its epithelium contains globlets cells in large numbers
D. Absorbs salt and water
Ans. A
Q 14. In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of the following structures are compressed except:
A. Subacromial bursa
B. Long head of biceps
C. Suprascapular nerve
D. Supraspinatus tendon
Ans. C
Physiology
Q 15. SI unit for measuring blood pressure is:
A. Torr
B. mrnHg
C. kPa
D. Bar
Ans. C
Q 16. Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through:
A. ATP dependent K+ channels
B. cAMP
C. Carrier modulators
D. Receptor phosphorylation
Ans. A
Q 17. Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with:
A. Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion
B. Increased phosphate
C. Increased excitability of muscle and nerve
D. Cardiac conduction abnormalities
Ans. C
Q 18. Ablation of the ‘somatosensory area 1’ of the cerebral cortex leads to:
A. Total loss of pain sensation
B. Total loss of touch sensation
C. Loss of tactile localization but not of two point discrimination
D. Loss of tactile localization and two point discrimination
Ans. D
Q 19. Non shivering thermogenesis in adults is due to:
A. Thyroid hormone
B. Brown fat between the shoulders
C. Adrenaline from adrenal medulla
D. Muscle metabolism
Ans. C
Q 20. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen:
A. Increased K+excretion
B. Decreased K+ excretion
C. Increased Na+ excretion
D. Increased Na+ reabsorption
Ans. B
Q 21. Tropomyosin:
A. Helps in the fusion of actin and myosin
B. Covers myosin and prevents attachments of actin and myosin
C. Slides over myosin
D. Causes Ca2+ release
Ans. B
Q 22. TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of disorders of following hormones:
A. Insulin
B. ACTH
C. Prolactin
D. PTH
Ans. C
Q 23. During muscular exercise all are seen except:
A. Increase in blood flow to muscles
B. Stroke volume increases
C. O2 dissociation curve shifts to left
D. O2 consumption increases
Ans. C
Biochemistry
Q 24. “All enzymes are not proteins.” This statement is justified by:
A. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis
B. RNAs act as ribozymes
C. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions
D. Metals are involved in attachment to enzymes and catalysts
Ans. B
Q 25. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:
A. Transferases
B. Oxidases
C. Lysases
D. Peptidases
Ans. A
Q 26. In which of the following reactions is magnesium required:
A. Na+K+ ATPase
B. Dismutase
C. Phosphatase
D. Aldolase
Ans. A
Q 27. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by:
A. Chemical methods
B. Physical methods
C. Chemiosmotic methods
D. Conformational changes
Q Ans. C
Q 28. Thiamine level is best monitored by:
A. Transketolase level in RBC
B. Thiamine level in blood
C. G-6-PD activity
D. Reticulocytosis
Ans. A
Q 29. Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of anemia due to:
A. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow
B. Increased hemoglobin production
C. Erythroid hyperplasia
D. Increased iron absorption
Ans. A
Q 30. Nitric oxide synthase:
A. Is inhibited by Ca++
B. Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction
C. Accepts electrons from NADH
D. Requires NADH, FAD, FMN & heme iron
Ans. D
Q 31. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the following, except:
A. Tyrosine
B. Epinephrine
C. Thyroxine
D. Melatonin
Ans. D
Q 32. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of:
A. Palmity CoA
B. Citrate
C. Acetoacetate
D. Oxalosuccinate
Ans. C
Q 33. Substrate level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of:
-ketoglutarateaA. Acetoacetate to
B. Succinyl CoA to succinate
C. Fumarate to malate
D. Succinate to fumarate
Ans. B
Q 34. Apo B48 and apo B100 are expressed as two different apo-proteins because of difference in:
A. RNA editing
B. RNA splicing
C. Chromosomal loci
D. Apo-B gene
Ans. A
Q 35. All the following can be used to detect mutation, except:
A. Single strand conformational polymorphism
B. Ligase chain reaction
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. DNA sequencing
Ans. B
Q 36. Which of the following is true regarding hydroxy ethyl starch:
A. It is an anesthetic agent
B. It is a plasma expander
C. It is a crystalloid
D. Used as a nutritional agent
Ans. B
Q 37. Elasticity of the corneal layer of SKIN is due to the presence of:
A. Histidine
B. Keratin
C. Lysine
D. Cysteine
Ans. B
Q 38. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by:
A. Ubiquitin
B. Tubulin
C. Laminin
D. Keratin
Ans. B

Q 39. Entropy in a biological system is constant because:
A. It is an open system
B. It is a closed system
C. It is a governed by vitalism
D. Has exothermic-endothermic reactions
Ans. D
Q 40. Which of the following is true regarding a system which favours oscillatory responses:
A. Has proportional component
B. Has a greater gain
C. Has a lesser gain
D. Positive FEEDBACK system
Ans. D
Q 41. Highest binding of iron is seen with:
A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. Haemoglobin
D. Ceruloplasmin
Ans. C
Pathology
Q 42. The epitheloid cell and multinucleated gaint cells of granulomatous inflammation are derived from:
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. CD4 T lymphocytes
D. Monocytes-macrophages
Ans. D
Q 43. The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection, except:
A. Exudation
B. Vasodilation
C. Margination
D. Granuloma formation
Ans. D
Q 44. The following feature is common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK cells:
A. Synthesize antibody
B. Require antibodies to be present for action
C. Effective against virus infected cells
D. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers
Ans. C
Q 45. In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of intestine the predominant cell population is that of:
A. B cell
B. T cells
C. Plasma cells
D. Basophils
Ans. B
Q 46. In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may be seen except:
A. Cavitation
B. Caseation
C. Calcification
D. Langerhan giant cell
Ans. A
Q 47. A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occurred:
A. Less than 1 hours
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 1 week
D. Within 1 month
Ans. D
Q 48. A 10 year old boy, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy except:
A. Ashoff nodules
B. Rupture of chordae tendinae
C. McCallum patch
D. Fibrinous pericarditis
Ans. B
Q 49. All of the following are seen in asbestosis except:
A. Diffuse alveolar damage
B. Calcified pleural plaques
C. Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis
D. Mesotheliomas
Ans. A
Q 50. Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in:
A. Whipple’s disease
B. Amyloidosis
C. Immunoproliferative small instetinal disease
D. Vibrio cholerae infection
Ans. A

Q 51. The histological features of celiac disease include all of the following, except:
A. Crypt hyperplasia
B. Increase in thickness of the mucosa
C. Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes
D. Increase in inflammatory cells in lamina propria
Ans. B
Q 52. In a chronic alcoholic all the following may be seen in the liver except:
A. Fatty degeneration
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Granuloma formation
D. Cholestatic hepatitis
Ans. C
Q 53. Crescent formation is characteristic of the following glomerular disease:
A. Minimal change disease
B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
C. Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
D. Rapidly non prgressive glomerulonephritis
Ans. B
Q 54. Necrotizing papillitis may be seen in all of the following conditions except:
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Tuberculous pyelonephritis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Analgesic nephropathy
Ans. B
Q 55. Disease or infarction of neurological tissue causes it to be replaced by:
A. Fluid
B. Neuroglia
C. Proliferation of adjacent nerve cells
D. Blood vessel
Ans. B
Q 56. Flat small vegetations in the cusps of both tricuspid and mitral valves are seen in:
A. Viral myocarditis
B. Libmann Sach’s endocarditis
C. Rheumatic carditis
D. Infective endocarditis
Ans. B
Microbiology
Q 57. Bacteria may acquire characteristics by all of the following except:
A. Taking up soluble DNA fragments across their cell wall from other species
B. Incorporating part of host DNA
C. Through bacteriophages
D. Through conjugation
Ans. B
Q 58. Neonatal thymectomy leads to:
A. Decreased size of germinal center
B. Decreased size of paracortical areas
C. Increased antibody production by B cells
D. mcreased bone marrow production of lymphocytes
Ans. B
Q 59. Staphylococcus aureus differs from Staphylococcus epidermidis by:
A. Is coagulase positive
B. Forms white colonies
C. A common cause of UTI
D. Causes endocarditis in drug addicts
Ans. A
Q 60. Positive Shick’s test indicates that person is:
A. Immune to diptheria
B. Hypersensitive to diptheria
C. Susceptible to diptheria
D. Carrier of diptheria
Ans. C
Q 61. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
Ans. B
Q 62. Which of the following is transmitted by rat urine?
A. Leptospira
B. Listeria
C. Legionella
D. Mycoplasma
Ans. A
Q 63. AII the following are true about Listeria except:
A. Transmitted by contaminated milk
B. Gram negative bacteria
C. Causes abortion in pregnancy
D. Causes meningitis in neonates
Ans. B
Q 64. Which of the following statement is true about Bacteroides:
A. It is gram positive bacilli
B. It is strictiy aerobic
C. It may cause peritonitis
D. Presence in stool culture indicates need for treatment
Ans. C
Q 65. Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by all the following except:
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
C. Staphylococcus
D. Clostridium perfringens
Ans. D
Q 66. HIV virus contains:
A. Single stranded DNA
B. Single stranded RNA
C. Double stranded DNA
D. Double stranded RNA
Ans. B
Q 67. Regarding HIV which of the following is not true:
A. It is a DNA retrovirus
B. Contains reverse transcriptase
C. May infect host CD4 cells other than T-lymphocytes
D. Causes a reduction in host CD4 cells at late stage of disease
Ans. A
Q 68. CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD4 counts fall below:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 200
D. 150
Ans. A
Q 69. Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except:
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Measles
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Ans. B
Q 70. In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled septate hyphae. Which of the following is the likely etiologic agent:
A. Mucor
B. Aspergillus
C. Histoplasma
D. Candida
Ans. B
Q 71. Which of the following is true regarding globi in a patient with lepromatous leprosy:
A. Consists of lipid laden macrophages.
B. Consists of macrophages filled with AFB
C. Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria
D. Consists of activated lymphocytes
Ans. B
Q 72. The following diagnostic tests are useful for corresponding purposes except:
A. Zeil-Neelson staining – Detection of mycobacteria
B. Immunoflorescence – Detection of influenza virus
C. Specific IgM antibodies – Immunity against rubella
D. Specific IgM antibodies – Detection of acute infection
Ans. C
Q 73. IL-1 produces:
A. T lymphocyte activation
B. Delayed wound healing
C. Increased pain perception
D. Decreased PMN release from bone marrow
Ans. A
Q 74. Microfilaria are seen in peripheral blood in which stage of filariasis:
A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early elephantiasis
C. Early adenolymphangitis stage
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 75. Confirmation of diagnosis of rota virus infection is by:
A. Antigen detection in stool by ELISA
B. Antibody titres in serum
C. Antigen detection by immunoflurescence
D. Antigen detection in serum by ELISA
Ans. A
Pharmacology
Q 76. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, except:
A. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
B. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
C. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy
D. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy
Ans. D
Q 77. All the following are selective beta blockers, except:
A. Atenolol
B. Esmolol
C. Bisprolol
D. Celiprolol
Ans. D
Q 78. All of the following factors increase the risk of aminoglycoside renal toxicity, except:
A. Elderly person
B. Dehydration
C. Simultaneous use with penicillin
D. Aminoglycoside administration in recent past
Ans. C
Q 79. In which of the following disorders is administration of barbiturates contraindicated in:
A. Anxiety disorders
B. Acute intermittent porphyria
C. Kemincterus
D. Refractive status epilepticus
Ans. B
Q 80. Mechanism of action tianeptin in the brain is:
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition
B. Selective norepinephfine reuptake inhibition
C. Selective serotonin reuptake enchancer
D. Selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
Ans. C
Q 81. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given:
A. After meals
B. Shortly before meals
C. Along with H2 blockers
D. During prolonged fasting periods
Ans. B
Q 82. Which of the following is correctly matched:
A. Dimercaprol:Iron
B. Calcium di-sodium EDTA:Arsenic
C. Penicillamine:Copper
D. Desferrioxamine:Lead
Ans. C
Q 83. Digoxin is contraindicated in:
A. Supraventricular tachycardia
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Ans. D
Q 84. All the following drugs cause renal failure except:
A. Cephaloridine
B. Amphoterecin B
C. Cefoperazone
D. Gentamicin
Ans. C
Q 85. All of the following statements are true regarding losartan except:
A. It is a competitive angiotensin receptor antagonist
B. It has a long acting metabolite
C. Associated with negligible cough
D. Causes hyperuricemia
Q Ans. D
86. Gemcitabine is effective in:
A. Head and neck cancers
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Small-cell lung cancer
D. Soft tissue sarcoma
Ans. B
Q 87. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Morphine
D. Heparin
Ans. D
Q 88. A highway truck driver has profuse rhinorrhea and sneezing. Which amongst the following durgs would you prescibe him?
A. Pheniramine
B. Promethazine
C. Dimerhydrinate
D. Cetrizine
Ans. D
Q 89. The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is:
A. Increased cAMP
B. Increased guanylate cyclase
C. Calcium channel blockage
D. K+ channel opener
Ans. B
Q 90. All the following belong to the steroid receptor superfamily except:
A. Vitamin D3 receptor
B. Thyroid receptor
C. Retinoid receptor
D. Epinephrine receptor
Ans. D
Q 91. All of the following undergo hepatic metabolism before excretion except:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Penicillin G
D. Cimetidine
Ans. C
Q 92. In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance of pregnancy increases after taking any of the following drugs except:
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Ampicillin
D. Cimetidine
Ans. D
Q 93. The primary mechanism of action of fluoride on topical application is:
A. Conversion of hydroxyapatite to fluoroapatite by replacing the –OH ions
B. Inhibition of plaque bacteria
C. Form a reservoir in saliva
D. Improvement in tooth morphology
Ans. A
Q 94. A 65 year old man was consuming opium for 20 years. He stops consumption suddenly and comes to casualty after 2 days. Which is likely to occur due to withdrawal:
A. Rhinorrhoea
B. Hypotension
C. Drowsiness
D. Miosis
Ans. A
Q 95. Which of the following causes hepatic granuloma?
A. Amiodarone
B. Alcohol
C. Cimetidine
D. Metronidazole
Ans. A
Q 96. Coronary steal commonly is seen with:
A. Atenolol
B. Diltiazem
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Dipyridamole
Ans. D
Q 97. A patient is taking ketoconazole for fungal infection develops cold for which he is prescribed terfenadine. Possible interaction between terfenadine and ketoconazole is:
A. Ketoconazole decreases metabolism of terfenadine
B. Terfenadine increases levels of ketoconazole
C. Ketoconazole decreases levels of terfenadine
D. No interaction
Ans. A
Forensic Medicine
Q 98. What would be the race of individual if skull bone having following feature – rounded nasal opening, horseshoe shaped palate, round orbit & cephalic index above 80:
A. Negro
B. Mongol
C. European
D. Aryans
Ans. B
Q 99. A sample to look for uric crystal (gouty tophus) would be submitted to the Pathology laboratory in:
A. Formalin
B. Distilled water
C. Alcohol
D. Normal saline
Ans. C
Q 100. Not a feature of brain death:
A. Complete apnea
B. Absent pupillary reflex
C. Absence of deep tendon reflex
D. heart rate unresponsive to atropine
Ans. C
Q 101. At autopsy, a body is found to have copious fine leathery froth in mouth & nostrils which increased on pressure over chest. Death was likely due to:
A. Epilepsy
B. Hanging
C. Drowning
D. Opium poisoning
Ans. C
Q 102. In fire arm injury, entery-wound blackening is due to:
A. Flame
B. Hot gases
C. Smoke
D. Deposition from bullet
Ans. D
Q 103. Tentative cut is a feature of:
A. Fall from the height
B. Homicidal assault
C. Accidental injury
D. Suicidal attempt
Ans. D
Q 104. Gastric lavage is indicated in all cases of acute poisoning ideally because of:
A. Fear of aspiration
B. Danger of cardiac arrest
C. Danger of respiratory arrest
D. Inadequat ventilation
Ans. A
Q 105. All of the following method used for detecting heavy metals, except:
A. Harrison & Gilroy test
B. Paraffin test
C. Neutron activation analysis
D. Atomic adsorption spectroscopy
Ans. B
Q 106. The sensation of creping, bugs over the body is a feature of poisoning due to:
A. Cocaine
B. Diazepam
C. Barbiturates
D. Brown sugar
Ans. A
Q 107. Which type of cattle poisoning occurs due to ingestion of linseed plant:
A. Aconite
B. Pilocarpine
C. Atropine
D. Hydro cyanic acid
Ans. D
Q 108. A 10 years old child present in casualty with snake bite since six hours. On examination no systemic signs are found & laboratory investigation are normal except localized swelling over the leg < 5 cm. Next step in management would be:
A. Incision & suction of local swelling
B. IV antivenom
C. Subcutaneous antivenom at local swelling
D. Observe the patient for progression of symptoms wait for antivenom therapy
Ans. D
Q 109. ‘Gold chloride’ test is done in poisoning with:
A. Heroin
B. Barbiturates
C. Cocaine
D. Heavy metals
Ans. C
PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL Medicine
Q 110. Iron and folic acid supplementation forms:
A. Health promotion
B. Specific protection
C. Primordial prevention
D. Primary prevention
Ans. B
Q 111. The most important function of sentinel surveillance is:
A. To find the total amount of disease in a population
B. To plan effective control measures
C. To determine the trend of disease in a population
D. To notify disease
Ans. A
Q 112. Serial interval is:
A. Time gap between primary and secondary case
B. Time gap between index and primary case
C. Time taken for a person from infection to develop maximum infectivity
D. The time taken from infection till a person infects another person
Ans. A
Q 113. All the following are advantages of case control studies except:
A. Useful in rare disease
B. Relative risk can be calculated
C. Odds ratio can be calculated
D. Cost effective and inexpensive
Ans. B


Q 114. The association between coronary artery disease and smoking was found to be as follows:
CAD No CAD
Smokers 30 20
Non smokers 20 30
The Odds ratio can be estimated as:
A. 0.65
B. 0.85
C. 1.35
D. 2.25
Ans. D
Q 115. In a prospective study comprising 10,000 subjects, 6000 subjects were put on beta carotene and 4000 were not, 3 out of the first 6000 developed lung cancer and 2 out of the second 4000 developed lung cancer. What is the interpretation of the above results?
A. Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer
B. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to each other
C. The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions
D. Beta carotene is carcinogenic
Ans. B
Q 116. About direct standardization all are true except:
A. Age specific death rates are not needed
B. A standard population is needed
C. Population should be comparable
D. Two propulations are compared
Ans. A
Q 117. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Rubella
B. Diphtheria
C. Tetanus
D. Hepatitis B
Ans. A
Q 118. Which of the following statements is true regarding pertussis?
A. Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000
B. Vaccine efficacy is more than 95%
C. Erythromycin is useful for prophylaxis
D. The degree of polymorphonuclear leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough
Ans. C
Q 119. Drugs A & B are both used for treating a particular SKIN infection. After one standard application, drug A eradicates the infection in 95% of both adults and children. drug B eradicates the infection in 47% of adults & 90% of children. There are otherwise no significant pharmacological differences between the two drugs, and there are no significant side effects. However, the cost of drug A is twice that of drug B. Dr. Sunil, a general practitioner, always uses drug B for the first treatment, and resorts to drug A if the infection persists. Dr. Sudhir, another general practitioner, always uses drug A for adults and drug B for children. Ignoring indirect costs, which of the following statement is incorrect:
A. Drug A is more effective than B for treating children
B. Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating children
C. Drug A is more cost-effective than drug B for treating adults
D. Dr. Sudhir’s regime achieves a higher level of cost-effectiveness than Dr. Sunil’s
Ans. B
Q 120. The infectivity of chicken pox lasts for:
A. Till the last scab falls off
B. 6 days after onset of rash
C. 3 days after onset of rash
D. Till the fever subsides
Ans. B
Q 121. Carriers are important in all the following except:
A. Polio
B. Typhoid
C. Measles
D. Diphtheria
Ans. C
Q 122. Acute flaccid paralysis is reported in a child aged:
A. 0-3 years
B. 0-5 years
C. 0-15 years
D. 0-25 years
Ans. C
Q 123. A 2-years-old boy, presented with cough, fever & difficulty in breathing. His RR 50/min. There was no chest indrawing. Auscultation of chest reveals bilateral crepitions. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Very severe pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia
C. Pneumonia
D. No pneumonia
Ans. C
Q 124. Active and passive immunity should be given together in all except:
A. Tetanus
B. Rabies
C. Measles
D. Hepatitis B
Ans. C
Q 125. Cereals and proteins are considered complemen- tary because:
A. Cereals are deficient in methionine
B. Cereals are deficient in methionine and pulse are deficient in lysine
C. Cereals are deficient in lysine and pulses are deficient in methionine
D. Cereal proteins contain non-essential amino-acids, while pulse proteins contain essential amino acids
Ans. C
Q 126. For a 60 kg Indian male, the minimum daily protein requirement has been calculated to be 40 g (mean) & standard deviation is 10. The recommended daily allowance of protein would be:
A. 60 g/day
B. 70 g/day
C. 40 g/day
D. 50 g/day
Ans. A
Q 127. A population study showed a mean glucose of 86 mg/ dL. In a sample of 100 showing normal curve distribution, what percentage of people have glocose above 86%?
A. 65 B. 50
C. 75 D. 60
Ans. B
Q 128. The best method to show the association between height and weight of children in a class is by:
A. Bar chart
B. Line diagram
C. Scatter diagram
D. Histogram
Ans. C
Q 129. The correlation between variables A and B in a study was found to be 1.1. This indicates:
A. Very strong correlation
B. Moderately strong correlation
C. Weak correlation
D. Computational mistake in calculating correlation
Ans. D
Q 130. The biological oxygen demand indicates:
A. Organic matter
B. Bacterial content
C. Anaerobic bacteria
D. Chemicals
Ans. A
Q 131. In a surveillance centre for hepatitis B, in a low prevalance area, the method for testing for hepatitis B was single ELISA. This policy was changed to double testing in series. This would result in the following 2 parameters of the test being affected:
A. Increased specificity and positive predictive value
B. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value
C. Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
D. Increased specificity and negative predictive value
Ans. A
Q 132. In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving a drug. The test of significance would be:
A. Unpaired t test
B. Paired t test
C. Chi square test
D. Fisher test
Ans. B
Q 133. Ravi and Ashok stay in the same hostel of the same university. Ravi develops infection with group B meningococcus. After a few days Ashok develops infection due to group C meningococcus. All the following are true statements except:
A. Educate students about meningococcal trans- mission and take preventive measures
B. Chemotheraphylaxis to all against both group B and group C
C. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Ravi
D. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Ashok
Ans. C
Q 134. All of the following are common cause of post neonatal infant mortality in India, except:
A. Tetanus
B. Malnutrition
C. Diarrhoeal diseases
D. Acute respiratory infection
Ans. A
Q 135. True about ‘total fertility rate’ is:
A. Sensitive indicator of family planning achievement
B. Completed family size
C. Number of live births per 1000 married women in reproductive age group
D. Average number of girls born to a woman
Ans. B

Q 136. ‘Silent epidemic’ of the century is:
A. Coronary artery disease
B. Chronic liver disease
C. Chronic obstructive lung disease
D. Alzheimer’s disease
Ans. D
Medicine
Q 137. The following condition is not associated with an increased anion-gap type of metabolic acidosis:
A. Shock
B. Ingestion of ante-freeze
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. COPD
Ans. D
Q 138. Acute metabolic acidosis:
A. Has biphasic effect on K+ excretion
B. Does not effect K+ excretion significantly
C. Decreases urinary K+ excretion
D. Increases urinary K+ excretion
Ans. C
Q 139. Urinary anion gap an indication of excretion of:
A. Ketoacids
B. Na
C. H+ ion
D. K+ ion
Ans. B
Q 140. The most common mode of inheritance of congenital heart disease is:
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. SEX linked dominant
D. Multifactorial
Ans. D
Q 141. Which one of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. G-6-PD deficiency
Ans. B
Q 142. Which type diabetes is HLA associated:
A. Type I diabetes
B. Tyep II diabetes
C. Malnutrition related type disease
D. Pregnancy related type diabetes
Ans. A
Q 143. All of the following are sexually transmitted, except:
A. Candida albicans
B. Echionococcus
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. Group B streptococcus
Ans. B
Q 144. All of the following infections may be transmitted via blood transfusion, except:
A. Parvo B19
B. Dengue virus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Hepatitis G virus
Ans. B
Q 145. Hypoglycemia is a recognized feature of all of the following conditions except:
A. Uremia
B. Acromegaly
C. Addison’s disease
D. Hepatocellular failure
Ans. B
Q 146. All of the following feature may be seen in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, except:
A. Fever
B. HEMOLYSIS
C. Hypertension
D. Low platelet count
Ans. C
Q 147. The following laboratory determinants is abnormally prolonged in ITP:
A. APTT
B. Prothrombin time
C. Bleeding time
D. Clotting time
Ans. C
Q 148. PNH is associated with all of the following condition except:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Increased LAP scores
C. Venous thrombosis
D. Iron deficiency anemia
Ans. B
Q 149. A 20 years adult presents with severe hypoplastic anemia. What is most effective treatment:
-interferonaA.
B. IL-2
C. ATG therapy
D. Bone marrow transplant
Ans. D
Q 150. Which of the following is not commonly seen in polycythemia vera?
A. Thrombosis
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Prone for acute leukemia
D. Spontaneous severe infection
Ans. D
Q 151. The following condition is not associated with an anti-phopholipid syndrome:
A. Venous thrombosis
B. Recurrent foetal loss
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Neurological manifestations
Ans. C
Q 152. Hypergastrinemia with hypochlorhydria is seen in:
A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B. VIPoma
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Glucagonoma
Ans. C
Q 153. All of the following phases of the jugular venous pulse and their causes are correctly matched, except:
A. ‘c’wave – onset of atrial systole
B. ‘a-x’ descent – atrial relaxation
C. ‘v-y’ descent – emptying of blood from right atrium into right ventricle
D. ‘y-a’ ascent – filling of the right atrium from the vena cava
Ans. A
Q 154. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding findings in JVP:
A. Cannon wave: Complete heart block
B. Slow vy descent: Tricuspid regurgitation
C. Giant c wave: Tricuspid stenosis
D. Increased JVP with prominent pulsations:SVC obstruction
Ans. A
Q 155. While inseting a central venous catheter, a patient develops respiratory distress. The most likely cause is:
A. Hemothorax
B. Pneumothorax
C. Pleural effusion
D. Hypovolemia
Ans. B
Q 156. All of the following are clinical features of myxoma, except:
A. Fever
B. Clubbing
C. Hypertension
D. Embolic phenomenon
Ans. C
Q 157. Renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with:
A. Diabetic nephropathy
B. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Minimal change disease
D. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Ans. B
Q 158. Characteristic of Henoch-Schonlein purpura is:
A. Blood in stool
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Susceptibility to infection
Ans. A
Q 159. Renal osteodystropy differs from nutritional and genetic forms of osesteomalacia in having:
A. Hypocalcaemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophostaemia
D. Hyerphosphatema
Ans. D
Q 160. Medullary cystic disease of the kidney is best diagnosed by:
A. Ultrasound
B. Nuclear scan
C. Urography
D. Biopsy
Ans. D
Q 161. A patient with nephrotic syndrome on long- standing corticosteroid therapy may develop all the following except:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypertophy of muscle
C. Neuropsychiatric symptoms
D. Suppression of the pituitary adrenal axis
Ans. B
Q 162. A 40 years old man presented with repeated episodes of bronchospasm and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray revealed perihilar bronchiectasis. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Idiopathic pulmonary fiborsis
C. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D. Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Ans. D
Q 163. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?
A. Coal dust
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Thermophilic actenomycetes
D. Tobacco smoke
Ans. D
Q 164. A 35 years old man was found +ve for HBsAg and HBeAg, accidentally during screening of blood donation. On laboratory examination SGOT and SGPT are normal. What should you do next:
A. liver biopsy
B. Interferon therapy
C. Observation
D. HBV-DNA estimation
Ans. D
Q 165. A 25 years women presents with bloody diarrhea and is diagnosed as a case of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following condition is not associated:
A. Sclerosing cholengitis
B. Iritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Pancreatitis
Ans. D
Q 166. Investigation of choice for invasive amebiasis is:
A. Indirect heamagglutination
B. ELISA
C. Counter immune electrophoresis
D. Microscopy
Ans. B
Q 167. A diabetic patient with BLOOD GLUCOSE of 600 mg/dL and Na 122 mEq/L was treated with insulin. After giving insulin the BLOOD GLUCOSE decreased to 100 mg/dL.What changes in blood Na level is expected?
A. Increase in Na+ level
B. Decrease in Na+ level
C. No change would be expected
D. Na+ would return to previous level spontaneously on correction of BLOOD GLUCOSE :
Ans. A
Q 168. A 20 years young man presents with exertional dyspnoea, headache, and giddiness. On examination, there is hypertension and L VR. X-ray picture shows notching of the anterior ends of the ribs. The most like diagnosis is:
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Carcinoid syndrome
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Superior mediastinal syndrome
Ans. C
Q 169. Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is important because:
A. RA factor is associated with bad prognosis
B. Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis
C. It is very common in childhood-rheumatoid arthritis
D. It correlates with disease activity
Ans. A
Q 170. Conn’s syndrome is associated with all except:
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Oedema
Ans. D
Q 171. The triad originally described by Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by:
A. Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, non beta cell tumour
B. Peptic ulceration, gastric hypersecretion, beta cell tumour
C. Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, non beta cell tumour
D. Peptic ulceration, achlorhydria, beta cell tumour
Ans. A
Q 172. All of the following are features of pheochromocytoma except:
A. Hypertensive paraoxysm
B. Headache
C. Orhtostatic hypotension
D. Wheezing
Ans. D
Q 173. The treatment of choice in young patient suffering from aplastic anaemia is:
A. Danazol
B. G-CSF
C. Bone marrow transplantation
D. ATG
Ans. C
Q 174. Raised anion gap in blood is not seen in which of the following?
A. Renal failure
B. Antifreeze ingestion
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Chronic respiratory failure
Ans. D
PEDIATRICS
Q 175. A Down syndrome girl has 21/21 translocation and her father is carrier of balanced translocation. Risk of Down syndrome in next pregnancy is:
A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 50%
D. 25%
Ans. A
Q 176. The following signs would warrant further evaluation of developmental status in a healthy 12 weeks old infant:
A. Dose not vocalize
B. Dose not babble
C. Dose not raise head up to 90°
D. Dose not transfer a bright red ring from one hand to the other, even when the ring is directly placed in the hand of child
Ans. A
Q 177. A 2 years child weighing 6.7 kg presents in the casualty with history of vomiting & diarrhoea for last 2 days. On examination SKIN pinch over the anterior abdominal wall go quickly to its original position. Interpretation of SKIN pinch test in this child will be:
A. No dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. SKIN pinch can not be evaluated in this child
Ans. D
Q 178. An infant presents with history of seizures & SKIN rashes. Investigations show metabolic acidosis and increased blood ketone levels. This child is likely to be suffering from:
A. Propionic aciduria
B. Urea cycle disorder
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Ans. D
Q 179. With reference to RDS, all of the following statements are true, except:
A. Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation
B. Is more common in babies born to diabetic mothers
C. Leads to cyanosis
D. Is treated by administering 100% oxygen
Ans. D
Q 180. Which of the following is not a common manifestation of congenital rubella:
A. Deafness
B. PDA
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Mental retardation
Ans. C
Q 181. An 8 years old boy presented with fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy with prior history of sore throat. There was no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows > 20% lymphoplasmacytoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Influenza
B. Tuberculosis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Ans. C
Q 182. The most common genetic cause of liver disease in children is:
A. Haemochromatosis
antitrypsin deficiency1aB.
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Glycogen storage disease
Ans. B
Q 183. Which of the following childhood tumors most frequently metastasizes to the bone:
A. Neuroblastoma
B. Ganglioneuroma
C. Wilms’ tumor
D. Ewing’s sarcoma
Ans. A
Q 184. A six months old girl is having recurrent UTI. Ultrasound abdomen shows bilateral hydronephrosis. MCU (micturating cystourethrogram) shows bilateral grade IV vesicoureteral reflux. The treatment of choice is:
A. Endoscopic injection of polyteflon at the ureteric orifices
B. Ureteric reimplantation
C. Bilateral ureterostomy
D. Prophylactic antibiotics
Ans. B
Q 185. The most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in a newborn is:
A. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
-hydroxylase deficiencybB. 11
C. -hydroxyalse deficiencya17
-hydroxysteroid deficiencybD. 3
Ans. A
Dermatology
Q 186. Multiple erythematous annular lesions with peripheral collarette of scales arranged predominantly over trunk are seen in:
A. Pityriasis versicolor
B. Pityriasis rubra
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. Pityriasis lichennoides
Ans. C
Q 187. All of the following are given for the treatment of pityriasis versicolor, except:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Griesofiilvin
C. Clotrimazole
D. Selenium sulphide
Ans. B
Q 188. A patient with PSORIASIS was started on systemic steroids. After stopping treatment, the patient developed generalized pustules all over the body. The cause is most likely to be:
A. Drug induced reaction
B. Pustular PSORIASIS
C. Bacterial infections
D. Septicemia
Ans. B
Q 189. Wickham’s striae are seen in:
A. Lichen niditus
B. Lichenoid eruption
C. Lichen striates
D. Lichen planus
Ans. D
Q 190. Griseofulvin is given for the treatment of fungal infection in finger nail dermatophytosis for:
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 3 months
Ans. D
Q 191. After 3 days of fever patient developed maculoerythematous rash that lasted for 48 hours. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Fifth disease
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. Roseola infantum
Ans. D
Q 192. Exfoliative dermatitis can be due to all the following diseases, except:
A. Drug hypersensitivity
B. Pityriasis rubra
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. PSORIASIS
Ans. C
Q 193. Genital elephantiasis is caused by:
A. Donovanosis
B. Congenital syphilis
C. Herpes genitalis
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
Ans. D
Psychiatry
Q 194. All of the following are features of hallucination, except:
A. Depends on will of the observer
B. Occurs in inner subjective space
C. It is a vivid sensory perception
D. It occurs in absence of perceptual stimulus
Ans. A
Q 195. The following is suggestive of an organic cause of the behavioural symptoms:
A. Formal thought disorder
B. Auditory hallucinations
C. Delusion of fruit
D. Visual hallucinations
Ans. D
Q 196. Delusion is not present in:
A. Delirium
B. Mania
C. Depresion
D. Compulsive disorder
Ans. D
Q 197. An alcoholic is brought to the casualty, 3 days after he quit alcohol, with the complaint of irrelevant talking. On examination, he is found to be disoriented in time, place and person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinations. There is no history of head injury. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Dementia praecox
B. Delirium tremens
C. Schizophrenia
D. Korsakoff psychosis
Ans. B
Q 198. Ram Lal, a 45 years old male came to the psychiatric OPD complaning of continuous, dull, non- progressive headache for the last 8 years. The patient has seen numerous neurologists in the belief that he has a brain tumor even though all his investigations have been normal. The patient insisted that he had a brain tumor and requested yet another workup. Psychiatric evaluation reveals disease conviction in the background of normal investigations. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Hypochondriasis
B. Somatization disorer
C. Somatoform pain disorder
D. Conversion disorder
Ans. A
Q 199. A patient presented with short lasting episodic behavioural changes which include agitation & dream like state with thrashing movements of his limbs. He does not recall these episodes & has no apparant precipitating factor. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Schizophrenia
B. Temporal lobe epilepsy
C. Panic episodes
D. Dissociative disorder
Ans. D
Q 200. A young lady presented with repeated episodes of overeating followed by purging after use of laxatives. She is probably suffering from:
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Schizophrenia
C. Aorexia nervosa
D. Binge eating disorder
Ans. A
Q 201. An 11 years old boy is all the time so restless that the rest of the class is unable to concentrate. He is hardly ever in his seat and roams around the hall. He has difficulty in playing quietly. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B. Conduct disorder
C. Depressive disorder
D. Schizophrenia
Ans. A
Surgery
Q 202. A patient suddenly experienced pain radiating along the medial border of the dorsum of foot. Which of the following nerve is most likely to be accidently ligated:
A. Sural nerve
B. Saphenous nerve
C. Deep peroneal nerve
D. Genicular nerve
Ans. B
Q 203. In an adult patient with pleural effusion, the most appropriate site for pleurocentesis done by inserting a needle is in:
A. 5th intercostal space in midclavicular line
B. 7th intercostal space in midaxillary line
C. 2nd intercostal space adjacent to the sternum
D. 10th intercostal space adjacent to the vertebral column
Ans. B
Q 204. Measurements of intravascular pressure by a pulmonary artery catheter should be done:
A. At end expiration
B. At peak of inspiration
C. During mid inspiration
D. During mid expiration
Ans. A
Q 205. A 24 years old man falls on the ground when he is struck in the right temple by a baseball. While being driven to the hospital, he lapses into coma. He is unresponsive with the dilated right pupil when he reaches the emergency department. The most important step in initial management is:
A. Craniotomy
B. CT scan of the head
C. X-ray of the skull and cervical spine
D. Doppler ultrasound examination of the neck
Ans. A
Q 206. Kamla Rani, 75 years old woman, presents after 6 weeks with post myocardial infarction with mild CHF. There was past history of neck Surgery for parathyroid adenoma 5 years ago. EKG shows slow artrial fibrillation. Serum Ca2+ 13.0 mg/L and urinary Ca2+ is 300 g/24 h. On examination these is small mass in the paratracheal position behind the right clavicle. Appropriate management at this time is:
A. Repeat neck Surgery
B. Treatment with technetium -99
C. Observation and repeat serum Ca2+ in two months
D. Ultrasound-guided alcohol injection of the mass
Ans. D
Q 207. Not a feature of de Quervain’s disease:
A. Autoimmune in etiology
B. Raised ESR
C. Tends to regress spontaneously
D. Painful & associated with enlargement of thyroid
Ans. A
Q 208. A 35 years old woman has had recurrent episodes of headache and sweating. Her mother had renal calculi and died of thyroid cancer. Physical observations revealed a thyroid nodule and ipsilateral enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Before performing thyroid Surgery the woman’s physician should order:
A. Thyroid scan
B. Estimation of hydroxy indole acetic acid in urine
C. Estimation of urinary metanephrines, VMA and catecholamines
D. Estimation of TSH, and TRH levels in serum
Ans. C
Q 209. All of the following are associated with thyroid storm, except:
A. Surgery for thyroiditis
B. Surgery for thyrotoxicosis
C. Stressful illness in thyrotoxicosis
D. I131 therapy for thyrotoxicosis
Ans. A
Q 210. Needle biopsy of solitary thyroid nodule in a young woman with palpable cervical lymph nodes on the same sides demonstrates amyloid in stroma of lesion. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
B. Follicular carcinoma thyroid
C. Thyroid adenoma
D. Multinodular goitre
Ans. A
Q 211. A 26 years old woman presents with a palpable thyroid nodule, and needle biopsy demonstrates amyloid in the stroma of the lesion. A cervical lymph node is palpable on the same side as the lesion. The preferred treatment should be:
A. Removal of the involved node, the isthmus,and the enlarged lymph node
B. Removal of the involved lobe, the isthmus, a portion of the opposite lobe, and the enlarged lymph node
C. Total thyroidectomy and modified neck dissection on the side of the enlarged lymph node
D. Total thyroidectomy and irradiation of the cervical lymph nodes
Ans. C
Q 212. The most common tumor of the salivary gland is:
A. Mucoepidermoid tumor
B. Warthin’s tumor
C. Acinic cell tumor
D. Pleomorphic adenoma
Ans. D
Q 213. The premalignant condition with the highest probability of progression to malignancy is:
A. Dysplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Leucoplakia
D. Erythroplakia
Ans. D
Q 214. An old man who is edentulous developed squamous cell CA in buccal mucosa that has infiltrated to the alveolus. Following is not indicated in treatment:
A. Radiotherapy
B. Segmental mandibulectomy
C. Marginal mandibulectomy involving removal of the outer table only
D. Marginal mandibulectomy involving removal of upper half of mandible
Ans. C
Q 215. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following condition?
A. Carcinoma esophagus
B. Scleroderma
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Diffuse esophagus spasm
Ans. D
Q 216. Treatment for achalasia associated with high rate of recurrence:
A. Pneumatic dilatation
B. Laparoscopic myotomy
C. Opefl surgical myotomy
D. Botulinum toxin
Ans. D
Q 217. Barrett’s esophagus is:
A. Lower esophagus lined by columnar epithelium
B. Upper esophagus lined by columnar epithelium
C. Lower esophagus lined by ciliated epithelium
D. Lower esophagus lined by pseudostratified epithelium
Ans. A
Q 218. The adenocarcinoma of esophagus developes in:
A. Barrett’s esophagus
B. Long standing achalasia
C. Corrosive stricture
D. Alcohol abuse
Ans. A
Q 219. The lowest recurrence of peptic ulcer is associated with:
A. Gastric resection
B. Vagotomy + drainage
C. Vagotomy + antrectomy
D. Highly selective vagotomy
Ans. C
Q 220. Risk factor for development of gastric CA:
A. Blood group O
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Intestinal hyperplasia
D. Intestinal metaplasia type III
Ans. D
Q 221. In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the metabolic disturbance is:
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria
D. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
Ans. C
Q 222. All the following indicates early gastric cancer except:
A. Involvement of mucosa
B. Involvement of mucosa and submucosa
C. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and muscularis
D. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and adjacent lymph nodes
Ans. C
Q 223. In gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be:
A. Antrum
B. Duodenum
C. Pylorus
D. Pyloric canal
Ans. B
Q 224. Ramesh met an accident with a car and has been in ‘deep coma’ for the last 15 days. The most suitable route for the administration of protein and calories is by:
A. Jejunostomy tube feeding
B. Gastrostomy tube feeding
C. Nasogastric tube feeding
D. Central venous hyperalimentation
Ans. A
Q 225. A 10 months old infant present with acute intestinal obstruction. Contrast enema X-ray shows the intussusception. Likely cause is:
A. Peyer’s patch hypertrophy
B. Mekel’s diverticulum
C. Mucosal polyp
D. Duplication cyst
Ans. A
Q 226. After undergoing Surgery , for carcinoma of colon, a 44 year old patient developed single liver metastasis of 2 cm. What do you do next:
A. Resection
B. Chemo-radiation
C. Acetic acid injection
D. Radiofrequency ablation
Ans. A
Q 227. Ten days after a splenectomy for blunt abdominal trauma, a 23 years old man complains of upper abdominal and lower chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing. He is anorectic but ambulatory and otherwise making satisfactory progress. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.2°C(108°F) rectally, and he has decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. His abdominal wound appears to be healing well,. bowel sound are active and there are no peritoneal signs. Rectal examination is negative. The WBC count is 12,500 per mm3 with a shift to left. Chest X-ray shows plate like atelectasis of the left lung field. Abdominal X-rays show a nonspecific gas pattern in the bowel and an air-fluid level in the left upper quadrant. Serum amylase is 150 Somogyi units/ dl (normal 60 to 80). The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Subphrenic abscess
B. Pancreatitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Subfascial wound infection
Ans. A
Q 228. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is an important part of the management of which of the following conditions?
A. Carcinoma prostate
B. Carcinoma breast
C. Carcinoma lung
D. Carcinoma nasopharynx
Ans. B
Q 229. A man who weighs 70 kg (154 pounds) is transfered to a burn center 4 weeks after sustaining a second and third-degree burn injury to 45% of his total body surface area. Prior to accident, the patients weight was 90 kg (198 pounds). The patient has not been given anything by mouth since the injury except for antacids because of previous ulcer history. On physical examination, the patient’s burn wounds are clean, but only minimal healing is evident and thick adherent eschar is present. The patient’s abdomen is soft and nondistended, and active bowel sounds are heard. His stools are trace-positive for blood, and he has a right inguinal hernia, which appears to be easily reducible. He has poor range of motion of all involved joints and has developed early axillary and popliteal fossae flexion contractures. In managing this patient at this stage of his injury, top priority must be given to correcting:
A. The presence of blood in stools by the increasing the dose of antacids and H1 receptor blocker
B. The open, poorly healing burn wounds treated by surgical excision and grafting
C. The inguinal hernia treated by surgical repair using local Anaesthesia
D. The nutritional status by oral supplementation or parenteral hyperalimentation
Ans. D
Q 230. A 14 years old girl sustains a steam bum measuring 6 by 7 inches over the ulnar aspect of her right forearm. Blisters develop over the entire area of the bum wound, and by the time the patient is seen 6 hours after the injury, some of the blisters have ruptured spontaneously. In addition to debridement of the necrotic epithelium, all the following therapeutic regiments might be considered appropriate for this patient except:
A. Application of silver sulfadiazine and daily washes, but no dressing
B. Application of polyvinylpyrrolidone foam, daily washes and a light occlusive dressing changed daily
C. Application of mafenide acetate cream, but no daily washes or dressing
D. Heterograft application with sutures to secure it in place and daily washes, but no dressing
Ans. D
Q 231. All of the following are the clinical features of thromboangitis obliterans except:
A. Raynaud’s phenomenon
B. Claudication of extremeties
C. Absence of popliteal pulse
D. Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis
Ans. C
Q 232. Rani, a 16 years old girl who has non-pitting edema of recent onset affecting her right leg but no other symptoms is referred for evaluation. True statements about this patient include:
A. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated
B. A lymphagiongram will show hypoplasia of the lymphatics
C. Elastic stocking and diuretics will lead to a normal appearance of the limb
D. A variety of operations will ultimately lead to a normal appearance of the limb
Ans. B
Q 233. Kamla, a 59 years old woman, has a left femoral vein thrombosis during a pregnancy 30 year ago. The left greater saphenous vein had been stripped at age 21. She now presents with a large non healing ulceration over the medial left calf, which has continuously progressed despite bedrest, elevation, and use of a support stocking. Descending phlebography of the left leg demonstrates a patent deep venous system, with free flow of dye from the groin to foot. The first profunda femoris valve is competent. Appropriate management might include which of the following:
A. Division of the superficial femoral vein in the groin and transposition of its distal end onto the profunda femoris vein below the level of the competent profunda valve
B. Saphenous venous crossover graft with anastomosis of the end of the right saphenous vein onto the side of competent femoral vein
C. Ligated iliofemoral venous thrombectomy with creation of the temporary arteriovenous fistula
D. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins in the left
calf.
Ans. A
Q 234. On her third day of hospitalization, a 70 years old woman who is being treated with antibiotics for acute cholecystitis develops increased pain and tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a palpable mass. Her temperature rises to 40°C (104°F) her blood pressure falls to 80/60 mmHg. Hematemesis, and melena ensue and petechiae are noted. Laboratory studies reveal thrombocytopenia, prolonged prothrombin time, and a decreased fibrinogen level. The most important step in the correction of this patient’s coagulopathy is:
A. Exploratory laparotomy
B. Administration of heparin
-aminocaproic acideC. Administration of
D. Administration of fresh frozen plasma
Ans. A
Q 235. A 64 years old previously healthy man is admitted to a hospital because of a closed head injury and ruptured spleen following a road side automobile accident. During the first 4 days of hospitalization, following laparotomy and splenectomy, he receives 5% dextrose, 0.5% normal saline solution at a rate of 125 mL/h. Recorded daily fluid outputs include 450 to 600 mL of nasogastric drainage and 700 to 1000 mL of urine. The patient is somnolent but easily aroused until the morning of the 5th hospital day, when he is noted to be in deep coma. By the afternoon, he begins having seizures. The following laboratory data are obtained. Serum electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+ 130; K+ 1.9; CI– 96; HCO3– 19. Serum osmolality 260 mOsm/L. Urine electrolytes (mEq/L): Na+ 61; K+ 18. Which of the following statements about diagnosis or treatment of this patient’s condition is true:
A. Emergency carotid arteriogram is to be done
B. Secondary to metabolic acidosis there is hypokalemia
C. A small qantity of hypertonic saline should be given
D. IV infusion of 20 ml of 50% MgSO4 is given over a period of 4 hours
Ans. C
Q 236. All of the following statements about acute adrenal insufficiency are true except:
A. Hyperglycemia is usually present
B. Acute adrenal insufficiency usually is secondary to exogenous glucocorticoid administration
C. Acute adrenal insufficiency presents with weakness, vomiting, fever, and hypotension
D. Hyponatremia occurs because of impaired renal tubule sodium resorption
Ans. A
Q 237. All of the following are correct statements about radiological evaluation of a pateint with Cushing’s syndrome except:
A. MRI of the sella turcica will identify a pituitary cause for Cushing’s syndrome
B. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way to distinguish a pituitary tumor from an ectopic ACTH producing tumor.
C. MRI of the adrenals may distinguish adrenal adenoma from carcinoma
D. Adrenal CT scan distinguishes adrenal cortical hyperplasia from an adrenal tumor
Ans. A
orthopaedics
Q 238. Carpel tunnel syndrome is due to compression of:
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Palmar branch of the ulnar nerve
D. Median nerve
Ans. D
Q 239. Most common nerve involved in the FRACTURE of surgical neck of humerus is:
A. Median
B. Radial
C. Ulnar
D. Axillary
Ans. D
Q 240. All of the following are associated with supracondylar FRACTURE of humerus, except:
A. It is uncommon after 15 years of age
B. Extension type FRACTURE is more common than the flexion type
C. Cubitus varus deformity commonly results following malunion
D. Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved
Ans. D
Q 241. A 40 years old man, was admitted with FRACTURE shaft femur following a road traffic accident. On 2nd day he became disoriented. He was found to be tachypnoeic, and had conjunctival petechiae. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Sepsis syndrome
C. Fat embolism
D. Haemothorax
Ans. C
Q 242. Kumar, a 31 years old motorcyclist sustained injury over his right hip joint. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation of the right hip joint. The clinical attitude of the affected lower limb will be:
A. External rotation, extension & abduction
B. Internal rotation, flexion & adduction
C. Internal rotation, extension & abduction
D. External rotation, flexion & abduction
Ans. B
Q 243. Pappu, 7 years old young boy, had FRACTURE of lateral condyle of femur. He developed malunion as the FRACTURE was not reduced anatomically. Malunion will produce:
A. Genu valgum
B. Genu varum
C. Genu recurvatum
D. Dislocation of knee
Ans. A
Q 244. Patellar tendon bearing POP cast is indicated in the following FRACTURE :
A. Patella
B. Tibia
C. Medial malleolus
D. Femur
Ans. B
Q 245. Inversion injury at the ankle can cause all of the following except:
A. FRACTURE tip of lateral melleolus
B. FRACTURE base of the 5th metatarsal
C. Sprain of extensor digitorum brevis
D. FRACTURE of sustentaculam tali
Ans. C
Q 246. A previously healthy 45 years old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain & weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true:
A. Immediate treatment should include analgesics, muscle relaxants & back strengthening exercises
B. The appearance of the foot drop indicates early surgical intervention
C. If the neurological signs resolve within 2 to 3 weeks but low back pain persists, the proper treatment would include fusion of affected lumbar vertebra
D. If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done
Ans. B
Q 247. Acute osteomylitis is most commonly caused by:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Actinomyces bovis
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Borrelia vincentii
Ans. A
Q 248. A 45 years male presented with an expansile lesion in the centre of femoral metaphysis. The lesion shows endosteal scalloping & punctuate calcifications. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Simple bone cyst
D. Fibrous dysplasia
Ans. B
Q 249. Raju, a 10 years old child, presents with predisposition to fractures, anemia, hepatosplenomegaly and a diffusely increased radiographic density of bones. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Pyenodysotosis
C. Myelofibrosis
D. Osteopetrosis
Ans. D
Q 250. Hari Vardhman, 9 years old child, presents with scoliosis, hairy tuft in the SKIN of back and neurological deficit. Plain X-rays reveal multiple vertebral anomalies & a vertical bony spur overlying lumbar spine on AP view. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Dorsal dermal sinus
B. Diastometamyelia
C. Tight filum terminale
D. Caudal regresion syndrome
Ans. B
Q 251. In a patient with head injury, unexplained hypotension warrants evaluation of:
A. Upper cervical spine
B. Lower cervical spine
C. Thoracic spine
D. Lumbar spine
Ans. C
Q 252. Complete transection of the spinal cord at the C1 level produces all of the following effects except:
A. Hypotension
B. Limited respiratory effort
C. Anaesthesia below the level of the lesion
D. Areflexia below the level of the lesion
Ans. B
Anaesthesia
Q 253. The gas which produces systemic toxicity without causing local irritation is:
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Hydrocyanic acid
D. Sulfur dioxide
Ans. B
Q 254. In a patient with fixed respiratory obstruction helium is used along with oxygen instead of plain oxygen because:
A. It increases oxygenation
B. It decreases turbulence
C. It decreases the dead space
D. It provides analgesia
Ans. B
Q 255. Upper respiratory tract infection is a common problem in children. All the following anesthetic complications can occur in children with respiratory infections, except:
A. Bacteremia
B. Halothane granuloma
C. Increased mucosal bleeding
D. Laryngospasm
Ans. B
Ophthalmology
Q 256. In the normal human right eye , the peripheral field of vision is usually least:
A. On the left side (nasally)
B. In the downward direction
C. In the upward direction
D. On the right side (temporally)
Ans. C
Q 257. Tonography helps you to determine:
A. The rate of formation of aqueous
B. The facility of outflow of aqueous
C. The levels of intraocular presure at different times
D. The field changes
Ans. B
Q 258. Any spectral colour can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in different proportions. If a person needs more of one of the colour for matching than a normal person, then he has a colour anomaly. More red colour is needed in the case of:
A. Deuteranomaly
B. Tritanomaly
C. Protanomaly
D. Tritanomaly
Ans. C
Q 259. The colours best appreciated by the central cones of our foveo-macular area are:
A. Red and blue
B. Blue and green
C. Red and green
D. Blue and yellow
Ans. C
Q 260. Epiphora is:
A. Cerebrospinal fluid running from the nose after FRACTURE of anterior cranial fossa
B. An epiphenomenors of a cerebral tumor
C. An abnormal overflow of tears due to obstruction of lacrimal duct
D. Eversion of lower eyelid following injury
Ans. C
Q 261. A 35 years old hypermetrope is using 1.50 D sphere both eyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward on his nose he will feel that his near vision:
A. Becomes enlarged
B. Becomes distorted
C. Becomes decreased
D. Remains the same
Ans. A
Q 262. Occulomoter nerve palsy affects all of the following muscles, except:
A. Medial rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Levetor palpabrae superioris
Ans. C
Q 263. Kusum Lata presents with acute painful red eye and mildly dilated vertically oval pupil. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute retrobulbar neuritis
B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
C. Acute anterior uveitis
D. Severe keratoconjunctivitis
Ans. B
Q 264. You have been referred a midle-aged patient to rule out open angle glaucoma. Which of the following findings will help in the diagnosis:
A. Cupping of the disc
B. Depth of anterior chamber
C. Visual acuity and refractive error
D. Angle of the anterior chamber
Ans. A
Q 265. In a case of hypertensive uveitis, most useful drug to reduce intraocular pressure is:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Latanoprost
C. Physostigmine
D. Dipivefrine
Ans. B
Q 266. A patient having glaucoma develops blepharoconjunctivitis after instilling some anti- glaucoma drug. Which of the following drug can be responsible for it:
A. Timolol
B. Latanoprost
C. Dipivefrine
D. Pilocarpine
Ans. C
Q 267. A 12 years old child complains of headache and decreased vision. On examination he has a visual acuity of 6/36 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye . On retinoscopy at 66 cm, the left eye showed correction of 1.5 D and the right eye of 5 D. The anterior chamber and fundus of
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